Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to perform closed intermittent bladder irrigation for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following actions is appropriate by the nurse?

• A. Aspirate the irrigation solution from the bladder
• B. Insert the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening
• C. Apply sterile gloves
• D. Open the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before performing a closed intermittent bladder irrigation is to apply sterile gloves. Sterile gloves help maintain asepsis, reduce the risk of infection, and ensure patient safety during the procedure. Aspirating the irrigation solution from the bladder (Choice A) is not a standard step in closed intermittent bladder irrigation. Inserting the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening (Choice B) can introduce contaminants into the system. Opening the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing (Choice D) should only be done after ensuring all equipment is ready and the nurse is gloved to maintain sterility.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

• A. Decrease fluid intake.
• B. Chew sugarless gum.
• C. Avoid using mouthwash.
• D. Increase intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who gave birth 1 week ago. The client states, 'I don't know what's wrong. I love my baby, but I feel so let down and I seem to cry for no reason.' The nurse should identify that the client is experiencing which of the following emotional responses to birth?

• A. Postpartum depression
• B. Taking-in phase
• C. Postpartum blues
• D. Taking-hold phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing postpartum blues, not postpartum depression. Postpartum blues are common and characterized by mood swings, tearfulness, and emotional letdown shortly after delivery. The 'Taking-in phase' involves the mother focusing on her own needs, while the 'Taking-hold phase' is characterized by a desire to learn and feel competent in caring for the baby. Postpartum depression is a more severe and long-lasting condition that requires professional intervention.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated albumin
• B. Elevated ammonia
• C. Decreased total bilirubin
• D. Decreased prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.

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