a nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initi
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Airborne. Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets that remain airborne for longer periods, hence requiring airborne precautions. Choice A - Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice B - Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets that can travel short distances. Choice C - Protective isolation is not necessary for tuberculosis, as it is not spread through contact with the client.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of ampicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for penicillin allergy.' Before administering ampicillin, it is crucial to assess the patient for any history of penicillin allergy. This is essential to prevent an adverse allergic reaction, as ampicillin belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics. Administering ampicillin with food (Choice A) is not a standard requirement and does not impact its effectiveness. Monitoring liver function (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate pre-administration assessment for ampicillin. Administering ampicillin intramuscularly (Choice D) is not typically the route of administration for this antibiotic, as it is usually given intravenously or orally.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! In a client with congestive heart failure, peripheral edema, decreased appetite, and fatigue are important signs to monitor as they can indicate worsening heart failure. Peripheral edema is a common sign of fluid retention due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, decreased appetite may indicate worsening heart function, and fatigue can be a result of inadequate cardiac output. Monitoring all these signs is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one symptom may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's condition.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing the pain level of a client who has dementia and difficulty communicating. Which pain assessment technique should the healthcare professional use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with dementia who have difficulty communicating, assessing pain using behavioral indicators like increased agitation and restlessness is more effective than relying on self-reported scales such as numeric rating scale, visual analog scale, or faces pain scale. Behavioral indicators provide valuable insights into pain perception in individuals who may have challenges expressing themselves verbally.

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