a nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin which of the following laboratory values should the n
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Drying the newborn is the first priority to prevent heat loss, which can occur rapidly in newborns due to their large surface area and lack of body fat. This helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Instilling erythromycin ophthalmic ointment, placing identification bracelets, and weighing the newborn can be important steps but should come after ensuring the newborn is dried to maintain their body temperature.

3. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.

4. A charge nurse on a med-surg unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). What task should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that the charge nurse should delegate to the LPN is to administer an oral antibiotic to a patient. LPNs are trained and permitted to administer medications orally under the supervision of a registered nurse. Initiating a care plan (Choice A) and completing an initial assessment (Choice D) are tasks that typically require higher-level nursing education and critical thinking skills, which are more suitable for registered nurses. Performing a complex wound dressing change (Choice B) involves specialized skills and assessment that are often within the scope of practice of registered nurses or wound care specialists.

5. Which of the following are contraindications to salicylic acid therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Third trimester of pregnancy. Salicylic acid is contraindicated during the third trimester of pregnancy due to the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. Thrombocytopenia (choice B) is not a contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. Coronary artery disease (choice C) is not a specific contraindication to salicylic acid therapy. However, caution should be exercised in patients with coronary artery disease due to the antiplatelet effects of salicylic acid. Adolescents with chickenpox (choice D) should not be given salicylic acid due to the risk of Reye Syndrome, a rare but serious illness.

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