Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?

• A. Premature ovarian failure
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Dysmenorrhea
• D. Recurrent urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.

3. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. What should the nurse teach the client?

• A. It should be taken at night
• B. Monitor for symptoms of hypothyroidism
• C. Take it with calcium supplements
• D. Take it on an empty stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach. This is because levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to ensure proper absorption. Option A is incorrect because levothyroxine is usually advised to be taken in the morning. Option B is not the priority teaching point as monitoring for hypothyroidism symptoms is ongoing care. Option C is incorrect as levothyroxine should not be taken with calcium supplements as they can interfere with its absorption.

4. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake
• B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake
• C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake
• D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest
• C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
• D. Apply powder frequently to the client’s skin under the vest to decrease itching

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting the pin site every 4 hours is necessary but not the priority in this case. Choice C is incorrect as it is not essential for two personnel to hold the halo device during repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can actually increase the risk of skin issues by clogging pores and causing irritation.

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