a nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin which of the following laboratory values should the n
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. A client is being treated for eclampsia. What is a priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Assess for hyperreflexia.' Eclampsia is a severe complication of pregnancy that involves seizures. Hyperreflexia, an overactive or overresponsive reflex, is often an early sign of impending eclampsia. By assessing for hyperreflexia, nurses can identify this warning sign and take preventive measures to manage the condition before seizures occur. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important but assessing for hyperreflexia takes precedence as it can lead to immediate life-threatening complications. While preparing for delivery (Choice D) may ultimately be necessary, the immediate priority is to assess for hyperreflexia to prevent seizures.

3. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.

5. A nurse is caring for an older adult who has a nonpalpable skin lesion that is less than 0.5 cm (0.2 in) in diameter. Which of the following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term the nurse should use to document this finding is 'Macule.' A macule is a flat, nonpalpable skin lesion that is smaller than 1 cm in diameter. In this case, the lesion described is less than 0.5 cm, making it appropriate to classify it as a macule. 'Papule' (Choice A) refers to a solid, elevated skin lesion, 'Vesicle' (Choice B) is a small fluid-filled blister, and 'Nodule' (Choice D) is a solid, elevated skin lesion that is larger and deeper than a papule, none of which accurately describe the lesion in question.

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