Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

2. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should not wash my hair before the procedure.”
• B. “I will be given a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.”
• C. “I should refrain from eating before the procedure.”
• D. “I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for four clients. Which of the following tasks can the healthcare provider delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Perform chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation
• B. Perform a dressing change for a new amputee
• C. Assess the effectiveness of antiemetic medication
• D. Provide discharge instructions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing chest compressions during cardiac resuscitation is a critical life-saving intervention that can be delegated to an assistive personnel during an emergency. This task requires immediate action and basic training, making it appropriate for delegation. Performing a dressing change for a new amputee involves specialized knowledge and skills, typically performed by licensed healthcare providers. Assessing the effectiveness of medication requires critical thinking and decision-making skills that are within the scope of a licensed healthcare provider. Providing discharge instructions involves educating the patient on post-discharge care and follow-up, which is typically done by a healthcare provider to ensure clear communication and understanding.

4. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

• A. The chest
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Left lateral

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

5. A client is being taught about the use of metformin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is taken with food
• B. It can cause hyperglycemia
• C. It should be taken once daily
• D. It is an injectable medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice A is the correct answer as taking metformin with meals can help reduce the likelihood of experiencing gastrointestinal side effects like diarrhea and nausea, which are common side effects of metformin. Choice B is incorrect because metformin actually helps lower blood sugar levels and does not cause hyperglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is usually taken twice or even three times a day, not just once daily. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is an oral medication, not an injectable one.

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