ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Bleeding time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?
- A. The TPN solution has an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top of the solution.
- B. The TPN solution contains added electrolytes, vitamins, and trace elements.
- C. The bag of TPN was prepared by the pharmacy 12 hours prior.
- D. The bag of TPN is labeled with the client's name, medical record number, and prescription.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A TPN solution with an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top indicates that the solution is 'cracked' and should not be used as it may have separated or deteriorated. This finding suggests a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering. Options B, C, and D are normal aspects of TPN administration. Option B confirms the presence of essential components in the TPN solution, option C provides information about the preparation time, and option D ensures proper identification and matching of the TPN with the correct client.
3. When teaching a client about the use of trazodone, what should be included?
- A. It can cause sedation
- B. It is a stimulant
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It should be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Trazodone can cause sedation, so clients should be cautioned about activities requiring alertness, like driving. Choice B is incorrect because trazodone is not a stimulant; it is actually a sedating antidepressant. Choice C is incorrect as all medications have potential side effects. Choice D is not specifically indicated for trazodone; the client should follow the prescribing healthcare provider's instructions regarding food intake.
4. An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving diuretic therapy. A nurse is closely monitoring the intake and output. The nurse uses which most appropriate method to assess the urine output?
- A. Weighing the diapers
- B. Inserting a Foley catheter
- C. Comparing intake with output
- D. Measuring the amount of water added to formula
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weighing the diapers is the most appropriate method to assess urine output in infants. Diapers will absorb and retain urine, providing a measurable indicator of urine output without invasive procedures. This method is non-invasive, simple, and convenient for monitoring urine output, especially in infants who may not be able to use other urine output measurement techniques. Inserting a Foley catheter is invasive and not indicated for routine urine output monitoring in infants. Comparing intake with output does not directly measure urine output. Measuring the amount of water added to formula does not provide an accurate assessment of urine output.
5. When working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?
- A. Encouraging the patient to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
- B. Using exposure therapy to help the patient confront their fears.
- C. Advising the patient to focus on positive thoughts.
- D. Suggesting that the patient keep busy to distract from traumatic memories.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure therapy is an evidence-based treatment for PTSD that involves gradually exposing the patient to their traumatic memories in a safe and controlled environment. This approach helps individuals confront and process their fears, reducing the impact of the traumatic event over time. Avoiding discussing the trauma (choice A) may lead to avoidance behaviors and hinder recovery. Focusing on positive thoughts (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying trauma. Keeping busy to distract from memories (choice D) is a form of avoidance that does not help in processing the traumatic experiences. Therefore, using exposure therapy (choice B) is the most appropriate approach to effectively treat PTSD.
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