a nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart disease which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of heart disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure, weight, and heart rhythm is crucial in clients with a history of heart disease as these parameters can indicate changes in the cardiovascular status. Changes in blood pressure can signify heart strain, weight fluctuations can be related to fluid retention or heart failure, and irregular heart rhythm can indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac issues. Monitoring all these parameters comprehensively allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the correct choice as it encompasses all the essential parameters for monitoring in clients with heart disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important changes in the client's condition.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis with a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease who may have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: epoetin alfa does not directly reduce blood pressure, inhibit clotting of the fistula, or stimulate growth of neutrophils.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

4. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.

5. A client with a history of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent future infections?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to drink 2-3 liters of water per day. Adequate hydration helps flush bacteria from the urinary tract, reducing the risk of UTIs. Choice A is incorrect because wiping from front to back is the appropriate technique to prevent the spread of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra. Choice C is incorrect as holding urine for long periods can contribute to UTIs by allowing bacteria to grow in the bladder. Choice D is incorrect as wearing loose-fitting underwear is recommended to allow air circulation and prevent moisture buildup, reducing the risk of UTIs.

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