ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of heart disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Weight
- C. Heart rhythm
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure, weight, and heart rhythm is crucial in clients with a history of heart disease as these parameters can indicate changes in the cardiovascular status. Changes in blood pressure can signify heart strain, weight fluctuations can be related to fluid retention or heart failure, and irregular heart rhythm can indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac issues. Monitoring all these parameters comprehensively allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the correct choice as it encompasses all the essential parameters for monitoring in clients with heart disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important changes in the client's condition.
2. A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?
- A. Tell me about your siblings
- B. Tell me what kind of music you like
- C. Tell me how often you drink alcohol
- D. Tell me about your school schedule
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Tell me how often you drink alcohol.' Alcohol use can exacerbate aggressive behaviors and is relevant for the assessment of suicide risk in adolescents with conduct disorders. Choices A, B, and D are unrelated to the assessment of suicide risk in this scenario and do not provide information that directly impacts the client's risk assessment.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer methylergonovine
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Poor problem-solving ability
- D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.
5. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer digoxin without any modifications
- B. Administer the medication at a lower dose
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.
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