a nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease which of the following positions should the nurse pla
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A nurse is caring for a laboring client and notes that the fetal heart rate begins to decelerate after the contraction has started. The lowest point of deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen during contractions. This is an emergency that requires prompt intervention. Changing the client's position helps improve placental blood flow, reducing stress on the fetus. Administering oxygen may be necessary if changing position does not resolve the decelerations. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it won't directly address the cause of late decelerations. Calling the healthcare provider should be done after immediate interventions like changing the client's position have been implemented and assessed.

3. A healthcare professional is teaching a client about reducing the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which factor increases the risk of UTI?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using perfumed toilet paper can irritate the urinary tract and increase the risk of UTI, so it should be avoided. Wearing underwear with a cotton crotch (Choice A) is a preventive measure as cotton allows for better air circulation and reduces moisture, lowering the risk of UTIs. Wiping from front to back (Choice B) helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the anal region to the urinary tract. Urinating after intercourse (Choice D) can help flush out bacteria introduced during sexual activity, thereby reducing the risk of UTIs.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 140,000/mm³ is at the lower end of the normal range but can be concerning in pregnancy, especially if there are signs of thrombocytopenia or bleeding. Thrombocytopenia in pregnancy can lead to complications such as bleeding during childbirth or excessive bleeding postpartum. The other laboratory values mentioned are within normal ranges for pregnancy and do not typically raise immediate concerns. High WBC counts can be a normal response to pregnancy, hemoglobin levels around 11.2 g/dL and hematocrit levels around 34% are also considered normal in the third trimester.

5. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

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