Nursing Elites

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

• A. The chest
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Left lateral

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following clients should the nurse refer to a social worker?

• A. A patient who requests to secure an emergency notification system in the home.
• B. A client who requires placement in an assisted living facility.
• C. A patient who requests to get school assignments while hospitalized on a pediatric unit.
• D. A patient who is experiencing food insecurity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because social workers are involved in arranging care services like placement in assisted living facilities. This client's need for placement in an assisted living facility requires the expertise and assistance of a social worker. Choices A, C, and D do not necessarily require the intervention of a social worker. Choice A can be addressed by a nurse or healthcare provider, choice C can be managed by hospital staff or educators, and choice D may involve a nutritionist or community outreach programs.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Shallow breathing
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Warm, dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

4. A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?

• A. “I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I’ll look for a league.”
• B. “I’m glad I’ll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can’t wait to get back to running.”
• C. “I’m so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this, and why am I not getting better?”
• D. “I feel like I’ll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.

5. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

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