a nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease which of the following positions should the nurse pla
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A nurse is preparing to perform closed intermittent bladder irrigation for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following actions is appropriate by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before performing a closed intermittent bladder irrigation is to apply sterile gloves. Sterile gloves help maintain asepsis, reduce the risk of infection, and ensure patient safety during the procedure. Aspirating the irrigation solution from the bladder (Choice A) is not a standard step in closed intermittent bladder irrigation. Inserting the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening (Choice B) can introduce contaminants into the system. Opening the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing (Choice D) should only be done after ensuring all equipment is ready and the nurse is gloved to maintain sterility.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to increase the risk of bleeding, so clients should be monitored for this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin is not typically associated with causing drowsiness. Choice B is not a specific consideration for aspirin use; it is not necessary to take it with food. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin is not considered safe during pregnancy and should be avoided, especially in the third trimester, as it may cause complications for the mother and the baby.

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