a nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease which of the following positions should the nurse pla
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed gabapentin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal function. Gabapentin is primarily eliminated by the kidneys, so monitoring renal function is essential to ensure the drug is being cleared effectively from the body. Monitoring liver function tests (choice A) is not a priority for gabapentin as it is not primarily metabolized by the liver. Blood glucose levels (choice C) are not directly impacted by gabapentin. Cardiac rhythm (choice D) monitoring is not typically necessary for clients on gabapentin unless they have pre-existing cardiac conditions that may be exacerbated by the medication.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.

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