a nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease which of the following positions should the nurse pla
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.

2. A nurse is observing bonding between the client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viewing the newborn’s actions as uncooperative indicates a negative interaction with the newborn and suggests impaired bonding, which requires intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not indicative of impaired bonding. Holding the newborn in an en face position is a positive way to bond with the baby. Asking the father to change the diaper shows involvement of both parents in caring for the newborn, which is beneficial for bonding. Requesting the nurse to take the newborn to the nursery so the mother can rest is a normal request and does not necessarily indicate impaired bonding.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a flu vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the flu vaccine. Verifying the client's age (choice A) is important for other vaccines but not specifically for the flu vaccine. While allergy to eggs (choice B) is relevant as the flu vaccine is traditionally produced in eggs, it is not the top priority for verification. The client's weight (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of the flu vaccine.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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