ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A client who is at 32 weeks gestation and has a history of cardiac disease is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to best promote optimal cardiac output?
- A. The chest
- B. Standing
- C. Supine
- D. Left lateral
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the left lateral position. Placing the client in the left lateral position promotes optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by reducing pressure on the inferior vena cava, improving blood flow to the heart and fetus. Choice A, 'The chest,' is incorrect as it does not describe a position that benefits cardiac output. Choice B, 'Standing,' is incorrect as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Choice C, 'Supine,' is contraindicated in pregnancy, especially in clients with cardiac disease, as it can compress the vena cava and decrease cardiac output.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client’s care plan. Which of the following goals is most appropriate?
- A. Client will inject insulin twice daily
- B. Client will keep appointments with the healthcare provider for 6 months
- C. Client's A1c will be 5% within one year
- D. Client's blood glucose will stay between 60-120 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A1c is a key indicator of long-term diabetes management, reflecting average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Achieving a target A1c of 5% indicates good control of blood sugar levels and reduces the risk of diabetes-related complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as appropriate as they focus on short-term tasks or individual blood glucose readings, rather than long-term management and outcomes.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lip-smacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.
4. A healthcare provider is discussing recommendations for daily nutrient intake during pregnancy with a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation. For which of the following nutrients should the healthcare provider instruct the client to increase intake during pregnancy?
- A. Vitamin E
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Fiber
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Calcium. During pregnancy, it is essential to increase calcium intake as it is crucial for fetal bone development and to prevent maternal bone loss. Adequate calcium supports the increased needs of both the mother and the developing baby. Vitamin E, Vitamin D, and fiber are also important nutrients, but the specific nutrient that needs to be increased during pregnancy for bone development is calcium. Vitamin E is an antioxidant that plays a role in protecting cells from damage, Vitamin D helps with calcium absorption and bone health, and fiber is important for digestive health but does not specifically need to be increased during pregnancy for bone development.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?
- A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
- B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
- C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
- D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.
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