a nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5 in water d5w to infuse over 15 min the drop factor of the manual iv tubing
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

2. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning. This medication is usually advised to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia, which is excessive urination at night. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide should be taken daily as prescribed, not as needed for edema. Option B is incorrect as monitoring weight weekly may not be specifically related to hydrochlorothiazide therapy. Option C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication. Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin. Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit. Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspirin is contraindicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reye's syndrome. Aspirin use in children with viral infections has been associated with Reye's syndrome, a serious condition that causes swelling in the liver and brain. Visual disturbances (choice B) are not typically associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Diabetes mellitus (choice C) and Wilms' tumor (choice D) are not adverse effects of aspirin use in this context.

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