a nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5 in water d5w to infuse over 15 min the drop factor of the manual iv tubing
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct. Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring kidney function is crucial to detect any signs of nephrotoxicity early. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperkalemia, hypertension, and constipation are not typically associated with amphotericin B use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for nephrotoxicity.

3. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.

4. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer iron dextran IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should plan to take when preparing to administer iron dextran IV is to administer a small test dose before giving the full dose. This is done to assess for any allergic reactions that the client may have to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because iron dextran should be infused slowly over a longer period, typically over 1-2 hours to reduce the risk of adverse reactions. Choice C is incorrect because iron dextran administration is more commonly associated with hypotension rather than hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because cyanocobalamin is not used as an antidote for iron dextran toxicity; instead, treatment for iron toxicity may involve supportive care, chelation therapy, or in severe cases, iron antidotes like deferoxamine.

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