Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer ampicillin 500 mg in 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 15 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the nurse set the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round to the nearest whole number)

• A. 33 gtt/min
• B. 66 gtt/min
• C. 10 gtt/min
• D. 14 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the IV flow rate, you multiply the drop factor (10 gtt/mL) by the volume to be infused per minute (50 mL / 15 min). This gives you 10 gtt/mL × 50 mL / 15 min = 33.33. Rounding to the nearest whole number, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 33 gtt/min. Choice B (66 gtt/min) is incorrect as it is the result of doubling the correct answer. Choice C (10 gtt/min) is incorrect as it only considers the drop factor without accounting for the volume to be infused. Choice D (14 gtt/min) is incorrect as it miscalculates the infusion rate based on the given information.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number)

• A. 20 mg
• B. 15 mg
• C. 10 mg
• D. 30 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dosage per dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 = 10 kg. Then, multiply the weight by the dosage: 4 mg × 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since this total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, the nurse should administer 20 mg per dose. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice B (15 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight conversion and dosage calculation. Choice C (10 mg) is incorrect as it only considers the weight conversion but doesn't multiply it by the dosage. Choice D (30 mg) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage by not dividing the total daily dose into 2 equal parts.

3. A client is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Proteinuria
• C. Nasal congestion
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. Proteinuria can indicate nephrotoxicity, a known adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin is known to cause kidney damage, leading to proteinuria. Hypoglycemia is not typically associated with gentamicin use but may be related to insulin administration or other medical conditions. Nasal congestion is not a common adverse effect of gentamicin. Visual disturbances are also not typically reported with gentamicin use.

4. A client with chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis is prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Reduces blood pressure
• B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
• C. Promotes RBC production
• D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis (red blood cell production) to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney failure. This helps in increasing the hemoglobin levels and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as epoetin alfa does not have direct effects on reducing blood pressure, inhibiting clotting of the fistula, or stimulating the growth of neutrophils.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask-like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Amantadine
• B. Bupropion
• C. Phenelzine
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Amantadine. Amantadine is used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms, such as mask-like facial expressions, involuntary movements, and tremors, which are common side effects of antipsychotic medications like chlorpromazine. Bupropion is an antidepressant and not indicated for treating these symptoms. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and anxiety disorders, not for extrapyramidal symptoms. Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not for the side effects described in the client.

Similar Questions