a nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure the client has been prescribed a high calorie low protein diet which of
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitrofurantoin can cause a harmless brown discoloration of urine. Choice B is also correct as it should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as nitrofurantoin does have side effects, such as gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice D is incorrect as nitrofurantoin is not recommended during the last month of pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

3. A charge nurse is evaluating the time management skills of a newly licensed nurse. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse does which of the following?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Working on several tasks simultaneously may lead to errors due to divided attention and lack of focus. It is important for nurses to prioritize tasks and complete them one at a time to ensure thoroughness and accuracy. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate time management strategies. Re-evaluating priorities, delegating tasks appropriately, and grouping activities for the same client can help improve efficiency and quality of care.

4. A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

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