ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?
- A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes
- B. Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding
- C. Steak, French fries, corn
- D. Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?
- A. Heart disease
- B. Cervical dilation of 2 cm
- C. Gestational age of 34 weeks
- D. Allergy to penicillin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart disease. Terbutaline is contraindicated in clients with heart disease because it can lead to tachycardia and other cardiac complications due to its beta-agonist properties. Choice B, cervical dilation of 2 cm, is not a contraindication for terbutaline administration in preterm labor. Choice C, gestational age of 34 weeks, does not contraindicate the use of terbutaline for preterm labor. Choice D, allergy to penicillin, is not related to the contraindications of terbutaline.
3. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?
- A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
- B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
- C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
- D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer methylergonovine
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.
5. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
- B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
- C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
- D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.
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