a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client who has a prescription which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client who has a prescription. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. There is no need to limit fish intake with furosemide, indicating a misunderstanding of dietary restrictions. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for a client taking furosemide. Taking morning pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, weighing oneself daily helps monitor fluid retention, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps can be important due to potential electrolyte imbalances.

2. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

3. While in the cafeteria, a nurse overhears two APs discussing a hospitalized patient. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to choose option C: 'Quietly tell the APs that this is not appropriate.' The nurse should immediately and discreetly address the situation, reminding the APs that discussing patient information in public areas violates confidentiality. Reporting the incident to the supervisor (option A) may be necessary if the behavior continues. Joining the conversation to intervene (option B) may escalate the situation and compromise patient confidentiality. Ignoring the conversation (option D) does not address the violation or prevent it from recurring.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the client’s neck in a midline position is essential when caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it helps promote optimal blood flow and reduces the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing pillows behind the client’s head (Choice A) may not be recommended as it could potentially increase ICP. Putting the client in a Sims' position (Choice B) and maintaining hip flexion at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP and are not the priority interventions in this situation.

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