Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat three large meals daily
• B. Consume high-calorie, high-protein foods
• C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
• D. Drink fluids between meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie, high-protein foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect because limiting caffeinated drinks is important, but the recommendation should focus on reducing intake, not specifying a number. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can lead to early satiety, making it difficult for the client to consume enough calories.

3. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• B. Place the newborn in a prone position
• C. Suction the newborn's airway
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of respiratory distress, the nurse should first suction the newborn's airway to clear any obstructions. This is a priority intervention as it helps ensure the airway is patent and allows for effective breathing. Administering oxygen, placing the newborn in a prone position, and notifying the healthcare provider are all important actions but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering oxygen may not be effective if the airway is obstructed. Placing the newborn in a prone position can worsen respiratory distress in infants. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to clear the airway takes precedence in this situation.

4. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the newborn
• B. Gavage feed 60 mL (2 oz) of glucose water
• C. Administer 10 mL of D5W via IV
• D. Recheck the glucose level in 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the newborn is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Breastfeeding can quickly raise blood glucose levels in newborns. A blood glucose level of 45 mg/dL is often acceptable in newborns, but close monitoring is necessary. Gavage feeding with glucose water or administering D5W via IV may not be necessary at this point and could lead to potential risks of overfeeding or hypoglycemia. Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours may delay necessary intervention, as breastfeeding can promptly address the low blood glucose levels.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

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