a nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate the nurse should monitor the client for which of the fol
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which of the following client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recurring bowel inflammation can decrease gastrointestinal motility, affecting the absorption of oral medications. This can lead to decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Choice B is incorrect because increasing exercise would not typically impact the absorption of arthritis medication. Choice C is incorrect as herbal supplements may not directly affect the absorption of conventional arthritis medication. Choice D is also incorrect as stress, while it can impact overall health, is less likely to directly affect the effectiveness of arthritis medication compared to gastrointestinal issues.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When administering warfarin, it is crucial to verify the patient's INR levels. INR monitoring is essential to ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dose of warfarin for their condition and to minimize the risk of bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering warfarin with food, monitoring blood glucose levels, and assessing liver function are not directly related to the safe administration and monitoring of warfarin therapy.

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