Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

2. A nurse is caring for a client newly prescribed doxazosin mesylate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in client education regarding taking the first dose of this medication?

• A. Change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs
• B. There is no need to avoid normal activities
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication
• D. Do not eat green leafy vegetables

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Doxazosin can cause first-dose orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to dizziness or fainting when the client stands up too quickly. The nurse should advise the client to change positions slowly and lie down if dizziness occurs to prevent falls and other injuries. Choice B is incorrect because while the client can continue normal activities, caution should be taken with position changes. Choice C is incorrect as doxazosin does not interact with dairy products. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to avoid green leafy vegetables specifically while taking doxazosin.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. 90-degree angle
• B. 60-degree angle
• C. 75-degree angle
• D. 45-degree angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 90-degree angle. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections because it is away from major nerves and blood vessels. Administering the injection at a 90-degree angle ensures that the medication reaches deep into the muscle tissue, allowing for proper absorption of the drug. Choice B, 60-degree angle, is incorrect as it is not the recommended angle for the ventrogluteal site. Choice C, 75-degree angle, and Choice D, 45-degree angle, are also incorrect as they are not the appropriate angles for administering an intramuscular injection using the ventrogluteal site.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of levothyroxine. Which of the following should the healthcare provider do?

• A. Give it with food
• B. Assess the patient's heart rate
• C. Administer it in the evening
• D. Give it with calcium supplements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's heart rate. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication that can increase metabolism. One of the potential side effects of levothyroxine is tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the patient's heart rate before administering the medication to monitor for any signs of tachycardia. Giving levothyroxine with food may affect its absorption, so it is typically recommended to administer it on an empty stomach. Administering it in the evening is not necessary unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider, and giving it with calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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