a nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate the nurse should monitor the client for which of the fol
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who is 48 hours old and is experiencing opioid withdrawals. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moderate tremors of the extremities. In newborns experiencing opioid withdrawals, moderate tremors of the extremities are a common sign. Other signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns may include irritability, feeding difficulties, and gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice A, hypotonia, is not typically associated with opioid withdrawal in newborns. Choice C, an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (96.9°F), falls within the normal range for newborns and is not specifically indicative of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, excessive crying, is not a typical sign of opioid withdrawal in newborns.

3. A nurse is receiving a report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow first because cloudy dialysate outflow suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate intervention. Assessing and addressing peritonitis promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and D present important findings that require attention but are not as urgent as peritonitis, which can quickly escalate and endanger the client's health.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Gentamicin is known to cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. Proteinuria, which is the presence of excess proteins in the urine, may indicate kidney damage from the medication. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients receiving gentamicin. Choice A, hypoglycemia, is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Choices C and D, nasal congestion and visual disturbances, are not commonly associated with gentamicin use or its adverse effects.

5. A client just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed. Lisinopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose, which can lead to dizziness and falls. Standby assistance helps prevent potential injury. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) or monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) are not typically necessary after the first dose of lisinopril unless specific symptoms are present. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate concern of postural hypotension associated with lisinopril.

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