a nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate the nurse should monitor the client for which of the fol
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia with severe features. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to initiate seizure precautions for the client. Severe preeclampsia increases the risk of seizures (eclampsia), making it crucial to prioritize the safety of the client. Restricting protein intake (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as seizure prevention takes precedence. While maintaining hydration is essential, starting an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride (Choice C) is not the initial action needed for seizure prevention. Encouraging the client to ambulate (Choice D) may not be safe or appropriate considering the severity of preeclampsia and the risk of seizures.

4. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the management of hypoglycemia. Which sign should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia. Instructing the client to monitor for diaphoresis is crucial as it can help them recognize and address hypoglycemic events promptly. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical signs of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes mellitus, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific indicators of low blood sugar levels.

5. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.

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