a nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate the nurse should monitor the client for which of the fol
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a pneumococcal vaccine. Which of the following should the nurse verify?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Client's vaccination history. Before administering a pneumococcal vaccine, the nurse should verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. Verifying the vaccination history helps prevent unnecessary vaccinations and ensures that the client receives the appropriate immunization at the right time. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of the pneumococcal vaccine. Checking for allergies to eggs may be important for other vaccines, but it is not specifically relevant to pneumococcal vaccination. The client's current medications and blood pressure are important for general health assessment but are not directly related to verifying the need for a pneumococcal vaccine.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

5. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.

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