Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

2. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

3. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
• B. Take the medication with food
• C. Monitor for signs of toxicity
• D. Discontinue the medication if potassium levels rise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has yellow-tinged skin. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Assess the infant's bilirubin levels
• B. Initiate phototherapy
• C. Monitor the infant's temperature
• D. Encourage breastfeeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yellow-tinged skin (jaundice) in a newborn can indicate hyperbilirubinemia. The priority action is to assess the infant's bilirubin levels to determine the severity of the jaundice and the need for further interventions, such as phototherapy. Initiating phototherapy (choice B) is premature without knowing the actual bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's temperature (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging breastfeeding (choice D) is beneficial but not the priority when dealing with jaundice in a newborn.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the psychiatric emergency services by law enforcement. The client has disorganized, incoherent speech with loose associations and religious content. The nurse should recognize these signs and symptoms as consistent with which of the following?

• A. Alzheimer's disease
• B. Schizophrenia
• C. Substance intoxication
• D. Depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schizophrenia. Disorganized speech, loose associations, and religious delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, indicating a severe mental disorder requiring immediate attention. Choice A, Alzheimer's disease, primarily involves cognitive decline and memory impairment, not disorganized speech or religious content. Choice C, Substance intoxication, may present with altered mental status but typically lacks the persistent pattern of symptoms seen in schizophrenia. Choice D, Depression, is associated with a different set of symptoms such as low mood, anhedonia, and changes in appetite or sleep, rather than disorganized speech and loose associations.

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