a nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer define the characteristics of the ulcer
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client is to verify the client’s identification with another nurse. This is crucial to ensure that the correct blood product is administered to the correct client, minimizing the risk of a transfusion reaction. Administering an antihistamine prior to transfusion (Choice A) is not the first priority and is not a standard practice. While checking the client’s vital signs (Choice B) is important, verifying the client’s identification takes precedence to prevent a critical error. Priming the IV tubing with normal saline (Choice D) is a necessary step in the process but should occur after verifying the client's identity.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pH of 7.32 indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, bicarbonate levels are often low, and there is a compensatory respiratory response leading to a decrease in PaCO2. Option A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the normal range and not indicative of DKA. Option C is incorrect because an HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L is not typically seen in DKA where bicarbonate levels are usually lower. Option D is incorrect because a PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg would not be expected in DKA; it would typically be lower due to compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypertension. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium and water retention, leading to increased blood pressure. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, it can elevate blood sugar levels. Hyperkalemia is also not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; instead, it can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels.

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