ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.
- A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
- B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
- C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
- D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.
2. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
- B. Monitor for dyskinesia
- C. It can be taken with food
- D. It is an opioid medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.
3. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
- A. Cesarean birth
- B. Vaginal birth
- C. Anemia
- D. Multiparity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?
- A. Apply ice packs to the affected extremity.
- B. Encourage ambulation every hour.
- C. Elevate the affected leg when in bed.
- D. Massage the affected area to improve circulation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is a crucial intervention in the care of a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, which can alleviate symptoms associated with DVT. Applying ice packs (Choice A) may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Encouraging ambulation (Choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to fatal complications. Massaging the affected area (Choice D) can also dislodge the clot and is contraindicated in DVT.
5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
- B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
- C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
- D. Take the second dose at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.
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