Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be assessed first?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first before administering nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to adverse effects such as dizziness or fainting. Assessing blood pressure before administration helps determine if the patient's blood pressure is within the acceptable range for nitroglycerin administration. Heart rate, pain level, and respiratory rate are also important assessments, but blood pressure should take precedence due to the vasodilating effects of nitroglycerin.

2. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. The nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone?

• A. Gentamicin
• B. Clindamycin
• C. Piperacillin
• D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin, and individuals with a penicillin allergy (such as Piperacillin) may have cross-sensitivity, making it contraindicated. Gentamicin (Choice A) belongs to the aminoglycoside class, not related to cephalosporins. Clindamycin (Choice B) is a lincosamide antibiotic and is not typically associated with cross-allergies to cephalosporins. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Choice D) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, also not directly related to ceftriaxone.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Sticky mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.

4. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation and notes that the client has gained 5 pounds in one week. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

• A. Preeclampsia
• B. Gestational diabetes
• C. Anemia
• D. Placenta previa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preeclampsia. Rapid weight gain, especially in the third trimester, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. This requires immediate medical attention. Choice B, Gestational diabetes, is incorrect because rapid weight gain is not a typical symptom of gestational diabetes. Choice C, Anemia, is incorrect as weight gain is not a common sign of anemia in pregnancy. Choice D, Placenta previa, is also incorrect because weight gain is not a typical symptom of this condition, which involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix.

5. When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an SSRI
• B. Monitor for metabolic syndrome
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It can be taken with alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.

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