a nurse is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin which of the following should be assessed first
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be assessed first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first before administering nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to adverse effects such as dizziness or fainting. Assessing blood pressure before administration helps determine if the patient's blood pressure is within the acceptable range for nitroglycerin administration. Heart rate, pain level, and respiratory rate are also important assessments, but blood pressure should take precedence due to the vasodilating effects of nitroglycerin.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

4. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

5. A client is experiencing suicidal thoughts and states, 'Why not end my misery?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do you have a plan to end your life?' When a client expresses suicidal thoughts, it is crucial to assess the immediate risk. Inquiring about a specific plan can help determine the seriousness of the situation. Choice A is less direct and may not provide a clear indication of the immediate risk. Choice C focuses on the interpretation of 'misery' rather than assessing the risk of suicide. Choice D offers support but does not address the critical assessment of the client's immediate safety.

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