a nurse is teaching a client about dietary modifications for a low sodium diet which of the following should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A nurse is teaching a client about dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit intake of processed foods. Processed foods are often high in sodium, which goes against the goal of a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables are recommended for a low-sodium diet due to their natural low sodium content. The use of accessory muscles and monitoring for allergic reactions are not related to dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet.

2. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

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