ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?
- A. Serum potassium levels
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Liver function tests
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The client has a history of cocaine use. The nurse should identify that the client is likely experiencing which of the following complications?
- A. Abruptio placentae
- B. Hydatidiform mole
- C. Preterm labor
- D. Placenta previa
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in a client with a history of cocaine use suggest abruptio placentae, where the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely, posing serious risks to both mother and fetus. Hydatidiform mole is characterized by abnormal trophoblastic tissue growth, not continuous pain and bleeding. Preterm labor is premature contractions leading to birth before 37 weeks gestation. Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, presenting with painless vaginal bleeding.
3. A charge nurse discovers that a nurse did not notify the provider that a client's condition had changed. The charge nurse should identify that the nurse is accountable for which of the following torts?
- A. Assault
- B. Battery
- C. Negligence
- D. False imprisonment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Negligence. Negligence refers to the failure to take reasonable care or fulfill a duty, which can cause harm to others. In this scenario, the nurse's failure to notify the provider of a change in the client's condition constitutes negligence as it breaches the standard of care expected in healthcare practice. Choice A, Assault, involves the threat of harmful or offensive contact, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice B, Battery, refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without their consent, which is also not relevant here. Choice D, False imprisonment, involves the intentional confinement or restraint of an individual against their will, which is not the issue described in the scenario. Therefore, the most appropriate tort in this case is negligence.
4. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn who has hyperbilirubinemia and a prescription for phototherapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Check the newborn's temperature every 4 hours
- B. Apply moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin every 4 hours
- C. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours
- D. Reposition the newborn every 2 to 3 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repositioning the newborn every 2 to 3 hours during phototherapy is important to expose all areas of the skin to light and facilitate the breakdown of bilirubin. Checking the newborn's temperature is important, but it should be done more frequently, such as every 4 hours, to monitor for any signs of overheating or hypothermia. Applying moisturizing lotion is not indicated during phototherapy as it may interfere with the treatment. Giving glucose water is not necessary for the management of hyperbilirubinemia.
5. A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
- C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
- D. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.
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