a nurse is caring for a client receiving ferrous sulfate which of the following should be monitored
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A client is receiving ferrous sulfate. Which of the following should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin levels. Ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia by increasing the body's iron stores. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial as it reflects the effectiveness of the treatment in improving the client's anemia. Serum potassium levels (Choice A) are typically not directly affected by ferrous sulfate. Liver function tests (Choice C) and blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not routinely monitored when a client is receiving ferrous sulfate unless there are specific indications or pre-existing conditions that warrant such monitoring.

2. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.

3. A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Fullness in the throat post-thyroidectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding, a critical complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect because it does not typically present with fullness in the throat. Choice C, Hypoxia, is not directly related to the symptom described and is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, Hypothyroidism, is also incorrect as it is a long-term condition and unlikely to manifest suddenly 4 hours postoperatively with throat fullness.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine the volume of prochlorperazine to administer, divide the prescribed dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (5 mg/mL). This calculation results in 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL to deliver the correct dose. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage. Choices C (1.0 mL) and D (1.5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated volume needed for the dose.

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