Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent contamination during the dressing change?

• A. Use sterile gloves only as necessary
• B. Restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray
• C. Keep the dressing tray on a nearby surface
• D. Avoid speaking during the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent contamination during a sterile dressing change is to restart the procedure if the sterile solution splashes onto the sterile field while pouring the solution into the dressing tray. Any contact with the sterile field by non-sterile items makes the field contaminated and requires restarting the procedure to maintain sterility. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should always be used during a sterile procedure to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing tray should be placed on a sterile surface, not on the client's bed, to maintain sterility. Choice D is also incorrect as talking during the procedure does not necessarily lead to contamination if proper aseptic technique is maintained.

2. A client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should not wash my hair before the procedure.”
• B. “I will be given a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.”
• C. “I should refrain from eating before the procedure.”
• D. “I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electroencephalogram (EEG), flashes of light or patterns are often used to stimulate the brain and provoke responses, helping to assess brain activity and the potential for seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing the hair, receiving a sedative, and refraining from eating are not usually related to EEG procedures and do not reflect understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse.

3. A client just received their first dose of lisinopril. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Place the client on cardiac monitoring
• B. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation
• C. Provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed
• D. Encourage foods high in potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide standby assistance when the client gets out of bed. Lisinopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose, which can lead to dizziness and falls. Standby assistance helps prevent potential injury. Placing the client on cardiac monitoring (choice A) or monitoring oxygen saturation (choice B) are not typically necessary after the first dose of lisinopril unless specific symptoms are present. Encouraging foods high in potassium (choice D) is not directly related to the immediate concern of postural hypotension associated with lisinopril.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Vitamin B6
• D. Propranolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). Vitamin B6 is often used to treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum. It is considered safe for use in pregnant clients. Digoxin (Choice A) is a medication used for heart conditions, not for hyperemesis gravidarum. Calcium gluconate (Choice B) is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. Propranolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and anxiety, not for hyperemesis gravidarum.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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