ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a catheter occlusion?
- A. Pain during urination
- B. Bladder distention
- C. Cloudy urine
- D. Blood in the catheter tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bladder distention. Bladder distention indicates that the bladder is full and there is impaired elimination, which could be caused by catheter occlusion. Pain during urination (choice A) is not typically associated with catheter occlusion but may indicate a urinary tract infection. Cloudy urine (choice C) can be a sign of infection but is not specific to catheter occlusion. Blood in the catheter tube (choice D) may indicate trauma during catheter insertion but is not a typical finding in catheter occlusion.
2. What teaching points are important for the nurse to discuss with a client with hearing loss who has been fitted for a hearing aid?
- A. Use the highest setting to promote full auditory comprehension
- B. Use mild soap and water to clean the ear mold
- C. Turn the hearing aid off to conserve battery life during hours of sleep only
- D. Immerse the hearing aid in saline solution to keep it hygienic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching point for a client with hearing loss who has been fitted for a hearing aid is to use mild soap and water to clean the ear mold. It is important to keep the ear mold clean to prevent infections and maintain proper functioning. Choice A is incorrect because using the highest setting can lead to discomfort and may not be necessary for all situations. Choice C is incorrect as the hearing aid should generally be turned off when not in use, not just during sleep, to conserve battery life. Choice D is incorrect as immersing the hearing aid in saline solution can damage the device; it should be kept dry to prevent malfunction.
3. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
- D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.
4. A client is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Assist the client to void every 3 hours
- B. Monitor contractions every 30 minutes
- C. Place the client in a lithotomy position
- D. Encourage the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern is crucial during the transition phase of labor. This phase is characterized by intense contractions and emotional responses. Pant-blow breathing helps manage pain and anxiety, providing comfort and support to the client. Voiding every 3 hours is not specific to the transition phase and may not address immediate needs. Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is important but may not be as directly beneficial as focusing on coping mechanisms like breathing techniques. Placing the client in a lithotomy position is generally not recommended during the transition phase as it can impede progress and comfort.
5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Normal heart rate
- D. Elevated oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.
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