Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage a diet high in calcium
• B. Provide a diet high in potassium
• C. Ensure increased fluid intake
• D. Restrict protein intake to the RDA

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of duloxetine. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an antidepressant medication
• B. It can cause weight gain
• C. Monitor for liver function
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for liver function.' Duloxetine is an antidepressant medication, not an antipsychotic, so choice A is incorrect. One of the common side effects of duloxetine is weight gain, making choice B incorrect. Choice D, stating that duloxetine has no side effects, is inaccurate as all medications have the potential for side effects. Monitoring liver function is crucial with duloxetine because it can impact liver function, emphasizing the importance of regular checks to ensure the client's safety.

3. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 122 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Positive Trousseau’s sign
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Sticky mucous membranes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sodium level of 122 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which is characterized by decreased deep tendon reflexes. Hyponatremia leads to neurological symptoms such as altered reflexes. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with hyponatremia. Positive Trousseau’s sign is related to hypocalcemia, hypoactive bowel sounds can be seen in paralytic ileus or decreased peristalsis, and sticky mucous membranes are not specific findings related to sodium imbalances.

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