ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage a diet high in calcium
- B. Provide a diet high in potassium
- C. Ensure increased fluid intake
- D. Restrict protein intake to the RDA
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
- A. Table salt
- B. Egg yolks
- C. White wine
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has meningococcal meningitis. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Start intravenous antibiotics
- C. Perform a complete assessment
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first priority when admitting a client with meningococcal meningitis is to initiate droplet precautions. This is essential to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, as meningococcal meningitis is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. Starting intravenous antibiotics or performing a complete assessment can follow, but the immediate concern is to implement infection control measures. Notifying the healthcare provider should also be done but is not the first action to take in this situation.
4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?
- A. Encourage high-calorie meals
- B. Administer intravenous fluids
- C. Provide frequent small meals
- D. Limit fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Temperature
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. Sildenafil, a medication for erectile dysfunction, can cause changes in blood pressure. The nurse should monitor for hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring heart rate (choice B) is not a priority when administering sildenafil unless there are pre-existing heart conditions. Temperature (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are typically not directly affected by sildenafil administration, making them less relevant for monitoring in this case.
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