ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which instruction should the nurse give to the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Monitor for polyuria
- B. Monitor for diaphoresis
- C. Monitor for abdominal pain
- D. Monitor for thirst
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for diaphoresis.' Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive sweating, is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. It indicates a low blood sugar level and should prompt immediate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly linked to hyperglycemia, while abdominal pain and thirst are not specific symptoms of hypoglycemia.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Delusions
- C. Flat affect
- D. Paranoia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flat affect. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia involve deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. These symptoms include a flat affect (reduced emotional expression), social withdrawal, and avolition (lack of motivation). Hallucinations and delusions are characteristic of positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences. Paranoia is more associated with delusions rather than negative symptoms.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enalapril. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to manage hypertension. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's blood pressure before administering enalapril to ensure it is within safe limits. Assessing other parameters like heart rate, serum creatinine, and potassium levels is also important but assessing blood pressure takes precedence due to the medication's mechanism of action and potential effects on blood pressure regulation.
4. A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you have any active lesions?
- B. Have your membranes ruptured?
- C. How far apart are your contractions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations
- B. Drainage collection chamber is 1/3 full
- C. 1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber
- D. Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. There should be 2 cm of water in the water seal chamber of the chest tube system. A level of 1 cm may indicate a leak or compromised functionality that requires intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not findings that necessarily require immediate intervention. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations is an expected finding, the drainage collection chamber being 1/3 full is within normal limits, and a suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O indicates appropriate suction for chest drainage.
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