a nurse is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture what is a risk of developing pressure injuries
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. A nurse is performing a newborn assessment and notes a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line. Which of the following should the nurse document?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the periosteum and the skull that does not cross the suture line. It is caused by trauma during birth and typically resolves on its own. Choice B, caput succedaneum, is characterized by diffuse edema over a newborn's scalp that crosses suture lines. Choice C, subdural hematoma, is a more serious condition involving bleeding between the dura mater and the brain. Choice D, molding, refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal. Therefore, the nurse should document cephalohematoma in this scenario as it aligns with the description of a soft, swollen area on the newborn's scalp that does not cross the suture line.

3. A nurse manager is teaching a group of employees about QSEN. What statement by an employee should the nurse manager identify as quality improvement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. QSEN focuses on quality improvement in healthcare. Tracking how soon patients are discharged after different types of surgeries helps in evaluating the quality of care provided and identifying areas for improvement. Choices A and B focus on monitoring outcomes but do not directly relate to quality improvement initiatives. Choice D is more about a routine assessment before discharge and does not involve a quality improvement process.

4. A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.” Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has liver cirrhosis and ascites. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Measuring the client’s abdominal girth daily is the most effective way to monitor the reduction of ascites and fluid retention in clients with liver cirrhosis. This measurement helps assess the effectiveness of treatment in managing ascites by monitoring changes in abdominal size. Monitoring the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice B) is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of ascites treatment. Administering lactulose as prescribed (Choice C) is important in managing hepatic encephalopathy, not ascites. Weighing the client weekly (Choice D) may not provide real-time feedback on the reduction of ascites compared to daily abdominal girth measurements.

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