Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Potassium levels
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.

3. A client with chronic renal failure needs dietary instructions. Which of the following should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase calcium intake
• B. Provide a diet high in potassium
• C. Restrict protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to restrict protein intake. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, so limiting protein helps reduce the buildup of waste in the body. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not typically necessary unless there is a specific deficiency. Providing a diet high in potassium (Choice B) is contraindicated as potassium levels need to be monitored and controlled in renal failure. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the individual's condition, but restricting protein intake is a more critical dietary instruction for clients with chronic renal failure.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving potassium-sparing diuretics. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving potassium-sparing diuretics, the healthcare professional should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium-sparing diuretics can cause potassium retention, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia-related complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because potassium-sparing diuretics typically do not cause hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, or hyponatremia.

5. A nurse is caring for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following interventions should be taken during phototherapy?

• A. Maintain an eye mask over the newborn's eyes
• B. Feed the newborn every hour
• C. Monitor the newborn's temperature
• D. Administer vitamin K

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During phototherapy for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia, it is crucial to maintain an eye mask over the newborn's eyes. The purpose of the eye mask is to protect the infant's eyes from potential damage caused by the intense light used in phototherapy. While feeding the newborn frequently and monitoring temperature are essential aspects of newborn care, they are not specific to phototherapy. Administering vitamin K is important for newborns to prevent bleeding disorders but is not directly related to phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia.

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