a nurse is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture what is a risk of developing pressure injuries
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.

5. A nurse is planning to administer chlorothiazide 20 mg/kg/day PO divided equally and administered twice daily for a toddler who weighs 28.6 lb. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct calculation is as follows: The toddler's weight in kg is 13 kg (28.6 lb / 2.2 lb/kg). The total daily dose is 260 mg (20 mg x 13 kg). Therefore, the dose per administration is 130 mg (260 mg / 2). Given the concentration of 250 mg/5 mL, the dose in mL is 2.6 mL (130 mg / (250 mg/5 mL)). Therefore, the nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose. Choice B, 2.2 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choices C and D, 3.5 mL and 5.0 mL, are also incorrect and do not align with the accurate dosage calculation based on the given scenario.

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