a nurse is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture what is a risk of developing pressure injuries
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

3. A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B: Hemorrhage. Fullness in the throat post-thyroidectomy can indicate postoperative bleeding, a critical complication that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect because it does not typically present with fullness in the throat. Choice C, Hypoxia, is not directly related to the symptom described and is not the primary concern in this situation. Choice D, Hypothyroidism, is also incorrect as it is a long-term condition and unlikely to manifest suddenly 4 hours postoperatively with throat fullness.

4. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

5. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion. When a nurse suspects an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs can be important steps but should come after stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety. Contacting the provider is necessary but not the first action to take in this situation. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize stopping the transfusion to address the potential adverse reaction.

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