Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking prednisone. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypertension. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect. Prednisone can cause sodium and water retention, leading to increased blood pressure. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Weight loss is not typically associated with prednisone use; instead, weight gain is more common. Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, it can elevate blood sugar levels. Hyperkalemia is also not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; instead, it can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels.

3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?

• A. Skin turgor displays tenting
• B. Flat anterior fontanel
• C. Cool, mottled skin
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

5. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

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