ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?
- A. Client's allergy to eggs
- B. Client's vaccination history
- C. Client's weight
- D. Client's blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client's vaccination history. Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine, it is essential to verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. This helps in preventing unnecessary vaccinations and ensures the appropriate timing and dosage. Option A, the client's allergy to eggs, is not directly related to administering the hepatitis B vaccine. Option C, the client's weight, and option D, the client's blood pressure, are not factors that need to be specifically verified before administering the hepatitis B vaccine.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which of the following client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor?
- A. The client has a history of recurring bowel inflammation.
- B. The client has recently increased their exercise regimen.
- C. The client is taking herbal supplements.
- D. The client is experiencing increased stress.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recurring bowel inflammation can decrease gastrointestinal motility, affecting the absorption of oral medications. This can lead to decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Choice B is incorrect because increasing exercise would not typically impact the absorption of arthritis medication. Choice C is incorrect as herbal supplements may not directly affect the absorption of conventional arthritis medication. Choice D is also incorrect as stress, while it can impact overall health, is less likely to directly affect the effectiveness of arthritis medication compared to gastrointestinal issues.
3. A charge nurse is preparing an educational session about addictive disorders for nursing staff. Which of the following should the nurse include as an etiological factor of addictive disorder?
- A. Low self-esteem
- B. Family history of addiction
- C. Personality disorders
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Addiction is influenced by various factors, including low self-esteem, family history of addiction, and specific personality traits. Low self-esteem can lead individuals to seek solace in substances, a family history of addiction can increase the likelihood of developing addictive behaviors due to genetic and environmental factors, and certain personality disorders may contribute to addictive tendencies. Therefore, all the factors listed in choices A, B, and C can play a role in the development of addictive disorders. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because addictive disorders are multifactorial, and it is essential to consider a combination of influences rather than isolating a single factor.
4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
- C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.
5. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
- B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
- C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
- D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.
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