Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.

2. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication before a meal.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol) is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Glipizide stimulates insulin release from the pancreas, which can lead to hypoglycemia. It is usually taken before a meal, not necessarily on an empty stomach. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent interactions with the medication. Taking the medication before bedtime is not the typical recommendation.

4. The healthcare provider is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the healthcare provider specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy?

• A. Anemia
• B. Decreased platelets
• C. Increased uric acid level
• D. Decreased leukocyte count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following chemotherapy for leukemias and lymphomas, hyperuricemia is common due to the massive cell kill. Chemotherapy leads to the rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing large amounts of nucleic acids, which are broken down into uric acid. Monitoring and managing uric acid levels are crucial to prevent complications such as renal damage and gout.

5. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic, and the healthcare provider prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the healthcare provider if the client is taking which medication?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A, which can lead to toxicity when taken together. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid concurrent use of vitamin A supplements with isotretinoin. Contacting the healthcare provider to discuss discontinuing vitamin A supplements is important to prevent potential adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to interact significantly with isotretinoin.

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