Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.

2. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

3. The client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide (Neosar). The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions and advises the client to:

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily.
• C. Decrease sodium intake while taking the medication.
• D. Increase potassium intake while taking the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily. Cyclophosphamide can cause hemorrhagic cystitis as a toxic effect. By increasing fluid intake, the client can help prevent this complication by promoting frequent urination, which reduces the concentration of the drug and its metabolites in the bladder. This dilution effect can help reduce the risk of bladder toxicity.

4. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

5. Before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, what is the most important laboratory test result for the nurse to check?

• A. Potassium level
• B. Creatinine level
• C. Cholesterol level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the potassium level before administering furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, so it is crucial to assess the potassium level to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

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