ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum electrolytes
- C. Blood pressure
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- B. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Call the provider if the client’s respiratory rate is less than 18/min
- B. Administer 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
- C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
- D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.
4. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?
- A. Abnormal mouth movements
- B. Inability to stand without assistance
- C. Paralysis of the right arm
- D. Loss of appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.
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