Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum electrolytes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. How far apart are your contractions?
• C. Do you have any active lesions?
• D. Are you positive for beta strep?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

• A. Allergy history
• B. Vital signs
• C. Renal function
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

5. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

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