Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum electrolytes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.

2. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare professional use?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Deltoid
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants under 1 year of age because it is well developed and easily accessible compared to other muscle groups. The ventrogluteal and deltoid sites are not typically used for infants due to muscle development and size. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for infants or young children due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of assistive personnel (AP) about the expected integumentary changes in older adults. Which should the nurse include?

• A. Increase in elasticity
• B. Decrease in pigmentation
• C. Decrease in elasticity
• D. Increase in moisture levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decrease in elasticity.' As individuals age, they typically experience a decrease in skin elasticity, leading to sagging skin and increased wrinkles. This change in elasticity can contribute to various skin-related issues such as pressure ulcers and delayed wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because older adults do not experience an increase in elasticity or moisture levels, and while there may be changes in pigmentation, the primary change related to aging in the integumentary system is a decrease in elasticity.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

• A. Intact skin with nonblanchable redness (Stage 1)
• B. Full-thickness tissue loss with subQ damage (Stage 3)
• C. Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and dermis
• D. Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to muscle or bone (Stage 4)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

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