Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving digoxin therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Serum electrolytes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving digoxin therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor liver function, serum electrolytes (especially potassium levels), and blood pressure. Digoxin is known to affect the heart's electrical activity and can lead to toxic effects if not managed properly. Monitoring liver function helps to assess the drug's metabolism and excretion. Checking serum electrolytes, especially potassium, is essential because digoxin toxicity can be exacerbated by electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia. Monitoring blood pressure is necessary because digoxin can influence cardiac contractility and heart rate, potentially affecting blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because monitoring only one or two of these parameters may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to digoxin therapy.

2. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

4. A client expresses anxiety about an upcoming surgery. What should the nurse do?

• A. Reassure the client that everything will be fine
• B. Ask the client to describe feelings
• C. Tell the client to stay positive
• D. Provide information about the surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to describe their feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. This allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties the client is experiencing. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings and not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice C may come across as dismissive and oversimplified. While providing information about the surgery (Choice D) is important, addressing the client's emotional state is the initial priority in this situation.

5. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of bupropion. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. It may increase seizure risk
• C. It is an SSRI
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bupropion may lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures, especially in clients with a history of seizures. Choice A is incorrect because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as bupropion is not an SSRI; it is an aminoketone antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as bupropion, like all medications, can have side effects, and it is essential for clients to be aware of them.

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