Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Signs of diarrhea
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.

2. A nurse is reviewing the guidelines for reporting nationally notifiable infectious diseases. What disease should the nurse report to the CDC?

• A. Measles
• B. Hepatitis A
• C. Lyme disease
• D. Zika

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Lyme disease. Lyme disease must be reported to the CDC as it is a nationally notifiable infectious disease. It is spread by ticks and can lead to significant health issues if not monitored. Measles, Hepatitis A, and Zika are also important infectious diseases, but in this case, Lyme disease is the appropriate choice based on the information provided.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

4. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• B. Place the newborn in a prone position
• C. Suction the newborn's airway
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of respiratory distress, the nurse should first suction the newborn's airway to clear any obstructions. This is a priority intervention as it helps ensure the airway is patent and allows for effective breathing. Administering oxygen, placing the newborn in a prone position, and notifying the healthcare provider are all important actions but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering oxygen may not be effective if the airway is obstructed. Placing the newborn in a prone position can worsen respiratory distress in infants. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to clear the airway takes precedence in this situation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for potential drug interactions. Which of the following factors should the nurse consider?

• A. Client's diet
• B. Client's age
• C. Client's genetic background
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! All of these factors should be considered when assessing a client for potential drug interactions. The client's diet can interact with certain medications, the client's age can affect metabolism and drug sensitivity, and genetic background can impact how the body processes medications. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to take into account all these factors to ensure safe and effective drug therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these factors alone can contribute to potential drug interactions, making it crucial to consider all of them together.

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