a nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor serum potassium levels. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide primarily affects potassium excretion rather than liver function, blood glucose levels, or calcium levels.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The client reports tingling in the fingers and around the mouth. The nurse should anticipate which of the following interventions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tingling in the fingers and around the mouth is a sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroid surgery due to accidental damage to the parathyroid glands. Hypocalcemia is common after thyroidectomy due to potential parathyroid damage. Calcium gluconate is the appropriate intervention to treat hypocalcemia. Providing a high-protein diet or administering levothyroxine are not indicated for hypocalcemia. Applying a warm compress to the client's neck would not address the underlying issue of hypocalcemia.

3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding supports this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack. This occurs due to the referred pain pathways shared by the heart and the left arm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pain relieved by rest (choice B) is more indicative of musculoskeletal pain rather than cardiac-related pain. Pain worsening with deep breathing (choice C) is often seen in conditions like pleurisy or pulmonary embolism, not myocardial infarction. Pain relieved by antacids (choice D) suggests gastrointestinal issues like heartburn or acid reflux, not cardiac-related pain.

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