a nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure which dietary instruction is most appropriate
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

2. Before an amniocentesis, what action by the client will need to be completed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before an amniocentesis, the client should empty their bladder. This is necessary to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. A full bladder can be in the path of the needle, increasing the risk of injury. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is not necessary before an amniocentesis. Avoiding eating for 12 hours (choice C) is not a standard preparation for an amniocentesis. Taking a sedative (choice D) is not routinely required for this procedure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for clindamycin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Signs of superinfection. Clindamycin can lead to antibiotic-associated colitis and other superinfections, making it crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of superinfection. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with clindamycin use. Serum potassium levels (choice B) and blood glucose (choice D) are also not directly affected by clindamycin, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amiodarone is known to potentially affect liver function, potassium levels, and blood pressure. Monitoring all these parameters regularly is crucial to detect any adverse effects early on. Liver function tests are necessary as amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity. Serum potassium levels should be monitored due to the risk of hypokalemia or hyperkalemia with amiodarone use. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as amiodarone can cause hypotension or hypertension. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all these parameters should be monitored to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important signs of adverse effects.

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