ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A client is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Draw a troponin level every four hours
- B. Perform an EKG every 12 hours
- C. Plan for oxygen therapy with a rebreather mask
- D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult. Cardiac rehabilitation is an essential part of the care plan for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction. It helps in improving recovery, enhancing quality of life, and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. Drawing troponin levels and performing EKGs are important for diagnosing and monitoring myocardial infarctions but are not interventions in the post-MI care plan. Oxygen therapy may be necessary based on the client's condition but is not specific to post-MI care.
2. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.
3. A client is found on the floor of their room experiencing a seizure. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?
- A. Place the client on their side with their head forward
- B. Call for help
- C. Protect the client's head
- D. Restrain the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client on their side with their head forward. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration, which is crucial in managing the client's safety during a seizure. Calling for help is important but ensuring the client's immediate safety by positioning them correctly takes precedence. Protecting the client's head can be done concurrently while positioning the client. Restraint is not appropriate during a seizure as it can lead to injuries and complications.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.5 mL
- C. 1.0 mL
- D. 1.5 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the volume of prochlorperazine to administer, divide the prescribed dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (5 mg/mL). This calculation results in 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL to deliver the correct dose. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage. Choices C (1.0 mL) and D (1.5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated volume needed for the dose.
5. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?
- A. Decrease protein intake.
- B. Reduce sodium intake.
- C. Increase fluid intake.
- D. Decrease calcium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.
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