ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Vernix caseosa
- B. Head circumference of 34 cm
- C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain the client's consent
- B. Verify the blood type and crossmatch
- C. Take baseline vital signs
- D. Prime the IV with normal saline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the blood type and crossmatch. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Obtaining the client's consent is important but should follow the verification process. Taking baseline vital signs is necessary before starting the transfusion, but confirming compatibility takes precedence. Priming the IV with normal saline is a step done before starting the transfusion, after ensuring blood compatibility.
3. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:
- A. Migraines
- B. Hypertension
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Heart disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.
4. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?
- A. I steal things because it’s the only way I can keep my mind off my bad marriage
- B. I can’t believe I was accused of something I didn’t do
- C. I don’t want to talk about my feelings right now; we will talk more next time
- D. I think that people should earn money honestly, even though I stole
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.
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