ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Vernix caseosa
- B. Head circumference of 34 cm
- C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
- D. Respiratory rate of 50/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.
2. Ted, a former executive, is now unemployed due to manic episodes at work. He was diagnosed with bipolar I 8 years ago. Ted has a history of IV drug abuse, which resulted in hepatitis C. He is taking his lithium exactly as scheduled, a fact that both Ted’s wife and his blood tests confirm. To reduce Ted’s mania, the psychiatric nurse practitioner recommends:
- A. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
- D. Lurasidone (Latuda)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lurasidone (Latuda) is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It can help manage symptoms of mania by stabilizing mood and reducing the intensity of manic episodes. Given Ted's history of bipolar I disorder and the need to address his manic symptoms, Lurasidone (Latuda) is a suitable recommendation by the psychiatric nurse practitioner to aid in managing Ted's condition effectively.
3. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.
4. Which of the following is an example of a live attenuated vaccine?
- A. Hepatitis B vaccine
- B. Inactivated polio vaccine
- C. Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine
- D. Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis (DPT) vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine is an example of a live attenuated vaccine because it contains weakened versions of the viruses that cause measles, mumps, and rubella. These weakened viruses can replicate in the body to stimulate an immune response without causing the diseases themselves.
5. A 32-year-old female patient is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which behavior would the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Complains of persistent and excessive worry.
- B. Frequently fidgets and has difficulty sitting still.
- C. Exhibits ritualistic behaviors.
- D. Reports periods of derealization.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), individuals often experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their life. This worry is difficult to control and is disproportionate to the actual source of concern. The other options describe behaviors more commonly associated with other anxiety disorders like social anxiety disorder (frequent fidgeting and difficulty sitting still), obsessive-compulsive disorder (ritualistic behaviors), and depersonalization/derealization disorder (periods of derealization). Therefore, the correct behavior to expect in a patient with GAD is persistent and excessive worry.
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