Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Vernix caseosa
• B. Head circumference of 34 cm
• C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
• D. Respiratory rate of 50/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.

2. A client with heart failure who presents with dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum should receive which dietary recommendation?

• A. Decrease protein intake.
• B. Reduce sodium intake.
• C. Increase fluid intake.
• D. Decrease calcium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reduce sodium intake. In heart failure, excess sodium can lead to fluid retention, exacerbating symptoms like dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum. Therefore, reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing heart failure. Decreasing protein intake is not typically recommended in heart failure management. Increasing fluid intake would worsen the condition by further contributing to fluid overload. Decreasing calcium intake is not directly related to managing heart failure symptoms such as dyspnea, bibasilar crackles, and frothy sputum.

3. A nurse is caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a designated stethoscope for the toddler
• B. Wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the toddler
• C. Place the toddler in a negative pressure room
• D. Remove the disposable gown before leaving the toddler's room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a designated stethoscope for the toddler is crucial to reduce the risk of spreading RSV to other patients. Choice B is incorrect because N95 respirator masks are not specifically indicated for RSV. Choice C is unnecessary as RSV does not require isolation in a negative pressure room. Choice D is incorrect because the gown should be removed after leaving the room to prevent transmission of pathogens to other areas.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding supports this diagnosis?

• A. Pain radiating to the left arm
• B. Pain relieved by rest
• C. Pain worsening with deep breathing
• D. Pain relieved by antacids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack. This occurs due to the referred pain pathways shared by the heart and the left arm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pain relieved by rest (choice B) is more indicative of musculoskeletal pain rather than cardiac-related pain. Pain worsening with deep breathing (choice C) is often seen in conditions like pleurisy or pulmonary embolism, not myocardial infarction. Pain relieved by antacids (choice D) suggests gastrointestinal issues like heartburn or acid reflux, not cardiac-related pain.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.

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