Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Vernix caseosa
• B. Head circumference of 34 cm
• C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
• D. Respiratory rate of 50/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Limit intake of processed foods
• B. Increase intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Monitor for allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit intake of processed foods. Processed foods are often high in sodium, which goes against the goal of a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits and vegetables are recommended for a low-sodium diet due to their natural low sodium content. The use of accessory muscles and monitoring for allergic reactions are not related to dietary modifications for a low-sodium diet.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

• A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client’s toes contract and draw together
• B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
• C. The client’s voluntary movement is not coordinated
• D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

4. During triage following a mass casualty event, which client should be prioritized?

• A. A client with massive head trauma
• B. A client with full-thickness burns to the face and trunk
• C. A client showing signs of hypovolemic shock
• D. A client with an open fracture of the lower extremity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During triage after a mass casualty event, the client showing signs of hypovolemic shock should be prioritized. Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention to restore circulation and prevent death. While clients with head trauma, burns, and fractures also need urgent care, hypovolemic shock poses an immediate threat to life and must be addressed first to stabilize the client's condition.

5. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?

• A. Assess the patient's temperature
• B. Document the patient’s response
• C. Prime IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
• D. Administer epinephrine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering blood products, assessing the patient’s temperature is crucial. This action provides baseline data to detect any febrile reactions during or after the transfusion. Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction, so continuous monitoring of vital signs is essential throughout the procedure. Documenting the patient’s response (choice B) is important but comes after assessing the temperature. Priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride (choice C) is not directly related to the initial action required before administering blood products. Administering epinephrine (choice D) is not indicated unless there is a severe allergic reaction, which is not the standard initial step before blood product administration.

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