Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Vernix caseosa
• B. Head circumference of 34 cm
• C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
• D. Respiratory rate of 50/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.

2. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?

• A. History of anxiety
• B. Socioeconomic status
• C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
• D. Support from family members

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.

3. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery is being assisted by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You should not worry about it
• B. The surgeon will answer your questions before surgery
• C. It’s too late to cancel the surgery
• D. You need to trust the medical team

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should encourage the client to express concerns and ensure that the surgeon addresses any questions prior to the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's worries. Choice C is incorrect because it does not respect the client's autonomy in decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's doubts directly or provide reassurance.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

5. When teaching a client about the correct use of a cane, what should the nurse include?

• A. Ensure the cane has a rubber cap
• B. Hold the cane on the stronger side
• C. Flex the elbow slightly when using the cane
• D. Use a quad cane for increased support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When using a cane, it should be held on the stronger side to provide optimal support and stability. This positioning allows the cane to bear weight effectively and helps in improving balance. Option A about ensuring the cane has a rubber cap is important for preventing slipping but is not directly related to the correct use of the cane. Option C, flexing the elbow slightly, is a general guideline and may vary depending on the individual's height and the type of cane being used. Option D suggesting the use of a quad cane for increased support is not necessary if a standard cane is sufficient for the client's needs.

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