Nursing Elites

1. A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.

2. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?

• A. Pain improves with rest
• B. Pain radiates to the left arm.
• C. Pain worsens with deep breathing.
• D. Pain is relieved by antacids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

5. A client who has undergone a cesarean birth is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Limit stair climbing for the first few weeks
• B. Avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn
• C. Use a pillow to support the abdomen when coughing or sneezing
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cesarean birth, it is important for the client to follow specific instructions for optimal recovery. Limiting stair climbing reduces strain on the incision site, aiding in healing (Choice A). Avoiding lifting anything heavier than the newborn prevents stress on the incision, promoting recovery (Choice B). Using a pillow to support the abdomen during coughing or sneezing helps reduce discomfort and protect the incision, preventing sudden movements or strain (Choice C). Therefore, all the options provided are crucial post-cesarean birth instructions to ensure proper healing and recovery. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of post-cesarean care, making Option D the correct answer.

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