Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking prednisone about the adverse effects of this medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Insomnia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of prednisone that the nurse should emphasize is hyperglycemia. Prednisone is known to increase blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. While weight gain and other metabolic changes are possible side effects, hyperglycemia is a more critical concern due to the risk of uncontrolled blood sugar levels and its impact on overall health. Insomnia and hypertension are not typically associated with prednisone use, making them less relevant to emphasize during client education.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to take an iron supplement.
• B. I will consume foods high in phosphorus.
• C. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates.
• D. I will monitor my blood glucose level daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in preterm labor and is receiving magnesium sulfate via IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
• D. BUN 20 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine output of 20 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity because decreased urine output can lead to accumulation of magnesium. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, high systolic blood pressure, and normal BUN levels do not specifically point towards magnesium toxicity.

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