ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who is at risk of developing pressure injuries. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position
- C. Encourage the client to reposition every 4 hours
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place the client in a 30-degree lateral position. Positioning the client laterally reduces pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and helping prevent pressure injuries. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) increases pressure on the bony prominences, raising the risk of pressure injuries. Similarly, placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) can also increase pressure on certain areas. While encouraging the client to reposition every 4 hours (choice C) is important, the specific lateral positioning is more beneficial in preventing pressure injuries.
2. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with kidney disease?
- A. Monitor blood pressure and provide dietary education
- B. Monitor urine output and provide IV fluids
- C. Administer diuretics and restrict fluid intake
- D. Monitor for cardiac arrhythmias and provide dialysis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nurses play a crucial role in managing patients with kidney disease by monitoring blood pressure and providing essential dietary education. This helps in maintaining kidney function and overall health. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring urine output and providing IV fluids are tasks usually performed by healthcare providers such as physicians or specialized staff. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics and restricting fluid intake are typically prescribed by a physician, and nurses may assist in monitoring the effects. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias and providing dialysis are tasks that are usually overseen by healthcare providers with specialized training in cardiology and nephrology.
3. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
4. What are the complications of untreated Type 1 diabetes?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis and retinopathy
- B. Hypoglycemia and neuropathy
- C. Hypotension and kidney failure
- D. Infection and fluid overload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diabetic ketoacidosis and retinopathy are indeed common complications of untreated Type 1 diabetes. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when the body starts breaking down fat for fuel, leading to a dangerous buildup of ketones in the blood. Retinopathy refers to damage to the blood vessels of the retina due to high blood sugar levels over time. The other choices, hypoglycemia and neuropathy (choice B), hypotension and kidney failure (choice C), and infection and fluid overload (choice D) are not typically the primary complications associated with untreated Type 1 diabetes.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Elevated blood pressure.
- B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
- C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
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