Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide the client with distractions such as television
• B. Administer pain medication around the clock
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• D. Perform massage therapy on the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing chronic pain is to teach relaxation techniques. This helps the client manage pain more effectively by reducing stress and anxiety, which can contribute to the perception of pain. Providing distractions like television (Choice A) may offer temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of chronic pain. Administering pain medication around the clock (Choice B) may lead to dependency and not promote holistic pain management. Massage therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be as effective as teaching relaxation techniques in the long term for managing chronic pain.

2. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's morning medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to verify the client's identity?

• A. Ask the client's full name
• B. Scan the client's facility identification band
• C. Call the client's name
• D. Verify with a second nurse

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to verify a client's identity when administering medications is to scan the client's facility identification band. This method ensures accuracy and helps prevent medication errors. Asking the client's full name (Choice A) may not be reliable as names can be similar, leading to confusion. Calling the client's name (Choice C) may not be effective if there are multiple clients with the same name in the facility. Verifying with a second nurse (Choice D) is an important safety measure for certain tasks but is not specifically for verifying a client's identity.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who reports nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's next step?

• A. Administer an antiemetic
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Increase the suction setting
• D. Replace the NG tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This action helps relieve blockages that may be causing the symptoms of nausea and decreased gastric secretions. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) may mask the underlying issue without addressing the possible blockage. Increasing the suction setting (Choice C) is not indicated without first addressing the potential blockage. Replacing the NG tube (Choice D) is also premature before attempting to clear any obstructions.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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