Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?

• A. Varicella
• B. Influenza
• C. Hepatitis B
• D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.

2. A client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Encourage the client to cough
• D. Notify the provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy first. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing increased secretions and labored breathing, suctioning the tracheostomy is the priority intervention to clear the airway and improve breathing. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may help with breathing but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Encouraging the client to cough (Choice C) may not be effective in clearing secretions from the tracheostomy. Notifying the provider (Choice D) can be done after ensuring immediate airway clearance.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Assess symptoms, monitor vital signs, order ECG
• B. Administer medications and monitor for pain
• C. Administer thrombolytics and oxygen therapy
• D. Educate patient on lifestyle changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

4. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?

• A. Boiled spinach
• B. Raw carrots
• C. Boiled chicken
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin
• B. Administer the injection in the client's thigh
• C. Use an intradermal needle for the injection
• D. Avoid touching the site after injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

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