a nurse is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised which of the following vaccines should the nurse plan to administer
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.

2. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.

3. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.

4. What are the risk factors for developing pneumonia in older adults?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and decreased lung function. Older adults with immobility and decreased lung function are at a higher risk of developing pneumonia. Immobility can lead to decreased lung expansion and impaired clearance of secretions, predisposing to pneumonia. While poor hygiene, aspiration, use of respiratory equipment, medications, poor nutritional status, and compromised immune system can also contribute to pneumonia risk, they are not as directly associated with pneumonia in older adults as immobility and decreased lung function.

5. A nurse is contributing to an in-service for newly-licensed nurses about child maltreatment. The nurse should include that which of the following characteristics increases a child's risk of physical maltreatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low birth weight increases a child's vulnerability to physical maltreatment due to additional care needs. Advanced maternal age (choice B) is not directly linked to an increased risk of physical maltreatment. Single parenthood (choice C) is not a characteristic that inherently increases the risk of physical maltreatment. Premature birth (choice D) is not listed as a characteristic that directly increases a child's risk of physical maltreatment.

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