Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Wandering at night
• B. A serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL
• C. Urinary incontinence
• D. Restlessness and agitation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness and agitation in clients with dementia could indicate a worsening condition and should be prioritized. While wandering at night and urinary incontinence are common issues in dementia patients, restlessness and agitation can signal acute distress or an unmet need, requiring immediate attention. Monitoring serum albumin levels is important for overall health but would not be the priority when assessing a client with dementia.

2. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administering sedative medication
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
• D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

3. A nurse is assisting with a presentation at a community center about personal disaster preparedness. Which of the following strategies should the nurse recommend for preparing a home disaster supply kit?

• A. Store enough water for 3 days
• B. Maintain communication with family
• C. Prepare only non-perishable food
• D. Prepare multiple escape routes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Store enough water for 3 days.' When preparing a home disaster supply kit, it is crucial to include enough water to last at least 3 days. This is because clean drinking water may not be readily available during a disaster situation. Choice B, 'Maintain communication with family,' is important for coordination but not directly related to preparing a supply kit. Choice C, 'Prepare only non-perishable food,' is also important but does not address the specific recommendation for water. Choice D, 'Prepare multiple escape routes,' is crucial for evacuation planning but does not pertain to the contents of a home disaster supply kit.

4. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

• A. Experiencing delusions.
• B. Male gender.
• C. Previous violent behavior.
• D. A history of being in prison.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is considered the best predictor of future violent actions as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts again. Option A, experiencing delusions, although it can impact behavior, is not as strong of a predictor as past violent behavior. Option B, male gender, is a demographic factor but not as specific or predictive as a history of violence. Option D, a history of being in prison, may indicate past behavior but is not directly linked to future violent actions as a known history of violence.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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