ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Fetal distress
- B. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm
- C. Vaginal bleeding
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Magnesium sulfate should not be used in cases of fetal distress, vaginal bleeding, or cervical dilation greater than 6 cm. These conditions can be exacerbated by the administration of magnesium sulfate, leading to further complications for the client. Choice A, fetal distress, is a contraindication because magnesium sulfate can further affect the fetal heart rate. Choice B, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can potentially suppress uterine contractions, prolonging labor. Choice C, vaginal bleeding, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can further increase bleeding tendencies.
2. In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
- A. Client has delivered one newborn at term
- B. Client has experienced no preterm labor
- C. Client has had two prior pregnancies
- D. ALL OF THE ABOVE - has one living child
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's health record data is interpreted as follows: G3 (gravida 3 - total number of pregnancies), T1 (term births - number of full-term deliveries), P0 (preterm births - number of preterm deliveries), A1 (abortions/miscarriages - total number of miscarriages or abortions), L1 (living children - total number of living children). Therefore, the client has had three pregnancies, one full-term delivery, no preterm labor, one miscarriage/abortion, and one living child. The correct interpretation is that the client has delivered one newborn at term, experienced no preterm labor, had two prior pregnancies, and has one living child. Therefore, choice D is correct. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide a comprehensive interpretation of all aspects of the client's health record data.
3. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.
4. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?
- A. Missed abortion
- B. Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Severe preeclampsia
- D. Hydatidiform mole
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.
5. During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?
- A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
- B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
- C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
- D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Palpating the fundus of the uterus during Leopold maneuvers is crucial to identify the fetal lie. This technique allows the nurse to determine the position of the baby's back and locate the fetal heart sounds, aiding in assessing the fetal lie. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to identifying the fetal lie during Leopold maneuvers. Applying palms to the sides of the uterus or grasping the lower uterine segment do not provide the necessary information about the fetal lie. Standing facing the client's feet and outlining cephalic prominence is more related to assessing the fetal presentation, not the fetal lie.
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