Nursing Elites

1. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Cholecystitis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Migraine headaches
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.

2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
• B. Weakened uterine contractions
• C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
• D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

3. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. After an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, and the placenta, fetus, and tissues remain in the uterus. How should the nurse document these findings?

• A. Incomplete miscarriage
• B. Missed miscarriage
• C. Inevitable miscarriage
• D. Complete miscarriage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Missed miscarriage.' In a missed miscarriage, fetal and placental tissues are retained in the uterus after fetal demise, which matches the scenario described in the question. This situation often requires medical or surgical intervention to remove the remaining products of conception and prevent complications. 'Incomplete miscarriage' (Choice A) typically involves partial expulsion of products of conception, 'Inevitable miscarriage' (Choice C) indicates that miscarriage is in progress and cannot be stopped, and 'Complete miscarriage' (Choice D) signifies that all products of conception have been expelled from the uterus.

4. During a Leopold maneuver, a healthcare professional determines that the fetus is in an RSA position. Which fetal presentation should be documented in the client's medical record?

• A. Vertex
• B. Shoulder
• C. Breech
• D. Mentum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Breech." The RSA position indicates that the fetus is in a breech presentation. In a breech presentation, the buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first, which can impact the mode of delivery and require close monitoring during labor and birth. Choice A (Vertex) refers to the head-first presentation, which is considered the normal and most common presentation for birth. Choice B (Shoulder) does not represent a specific fetal presentation. Choice D (Mentum) refers to the chin presentation, which is also not relevant in this scenario.

5. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

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