ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.
2. What are the actions involved in the process of digestion?
- A. thermal and chemical.
- B. chemical and segmental.
- C. muscular and chemical.
- D. mechanical and thermal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'muscular and chemical.' In the process of digestion, muscular movements help in mixing and propelling food along the digestive tract, while chemical breakdowns involving enzymes and acids break down food into smaller molecules for absorption. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as thermal, segmental, and mechanical actions are not the primary actions involved in the digestion process.
3. What are the early signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor
- B. Weight loss and increased urination
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Hypoglycemia and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Diabetic ketoacidosis presents with these early signs due to ketone buildup in the body. Choice B, weight loss and increased urination, are more characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes but not specific to diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, nausea and vomiting, can occur in diabetic ketoacidosis but are not as early or specific as excessive thirst and fruity breath odor. Choice D, hypoglycemia and fatigue, are not typical signs of diabetic ketoacidosis; rather, diabetic ketoacidosis usually presents with hyperglycemia.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?
- A. Magnesium sulfate
- B. Oxytocin
- C. Misoprostol
- D. Nifedipine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- B. Glucose 50 mg/dL
- C. Bilirubin 4 mg/dL
- D. Platelets 200,000/mm³
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.
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