Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

• A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
• B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
• C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
• D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. The client states, 'I missed one menstrual cycle and cannot be pregnant because I have an intrauterine device.' The nurse should suspect which of the following?

• A. Missed abortion
• B. Ectopic pregnancy
• C. Severe preeclampsia
• D. Hydatidiform mole

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ectopic pregnancy should be suspected in clients with abrupt, sharp, right-sided lower quadrant abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding, especially if they have an intrauterine device (IUD). In this case, the client's symptoms are classic for ectopic pregnancy, where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, commonly in the fallopian tube. Missed abortion (choice A) refers to a nonviable embryo or fetus in the uterus, which is not consistent with the client's presentation. Severe preeclampsia (choice C) is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, not the symptoms described. Hydatidiform mole (choice D) presents with vaginal bleeding but typically lacks abdominal pain and is not related to the presence of an IUD.

3. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

4. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

5. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
• B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
• C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
• D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

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