Nursing Elites

1. A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Reinforce the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed
• B. Ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant
• C. Monitor the infant for signs of failure to thrive
• D. Check the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.

2. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
• B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
• C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
• D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

3. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

• A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
• B. 3+ protein in the urine
• C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
• D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

4. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a BMI within the expected reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should gain more than 15 to 20 pounds during my pregnancy.
• B. I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse.
• C. I'm glad I had a breast reduction years ago so they will not enlarge with my pregnancy.
• D. I'm glad I have a light complexion and will not get any stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During pregnancy, weight gain is expected. The client's understanding is demonstrated by acknowledging the need for alternative sexual positions due to the physiological changes, such as weight gain and a growing abdomen. This statement reflects comprehension of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider.

5. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

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