HESI RN
Leadership HESI
1. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Take the medication with meals.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take the medication before bedtime.
- D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.
2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Heart failure
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.
3. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?
- A. Number of staff-induced injuries
- B. Client satisfaction survey
- C. Healthcare-associated infection rate
- D. Rate of needle-stick injuries by nurses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - Healthcare-associated infection rate. Acrylic nails can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. By implementing a policy to remove acrylic nails, the goal is to reduce the infection rate. Monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate will provide a direct measure of the policy's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. This measure is more specific and directly related to the objective of reducing the risk of infections compared to the other choices.
4. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?
- A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
- B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
- C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
- D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.
5. Incomplete abortion is characterized by:
- A. Heavy bleeding.
- B. Open os.
- C. Severe cramping.
- D. Light bleeding.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is characterized by an open os, which means that the cervix is dilated, allowing for passage of tissue. This condition typically presents with heavy bleeding as parts of the products of conception are expelled. Severe cramping may also be present due to uterine contractions. Therefore, the correct characteristic of incomplete abortion is an open os (Choice B). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as heavy bleeding and severe cramping are symptoms associated with incomplete abortion, but they do not specifically define it, and light bleeding is not characteristic of incomplete abortion.