Nursing Elites

1. A client with peripheral vascular disease reports leg pain while walking. What intervention is most effective for the nurse to recommend?

• A. Recommend elevating the legs above the heart.
• B. Encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually.
• C. Encourage the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods.
• D. Instruct the client to use warm compresses for pain relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually. This intervention is effective because gradual increases in walking distance promote circulation, improve oxygen delivery to tissues, and help reduce leg pain caused by peripheral vascular disease. Elevating the legs above the heart (Choice A) may be beneficial in other conditions like venous insufficiency but not specifically for peripheral vascular disease. Encouraging the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods (Choice C) can help prevent blood pooling but does not directly address the walking-induced leg pain. Instructing the client to use warm compresses for pain relief (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying circulation issues associated with peripheral vascular disease.

2. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Pupils equal and reactive to light.
• B. Sudden increase in urine output.
• C. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Increase in blood pressure by 20 mmHg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.

3. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is cause for the most concern as it could indicate compromised blood circulation, potentially leading to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea are not directly related to the client's condition in atrial fibrillation and the heart rate discrepancy.

4. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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