Nursing Elites

1. A client with peripheral vascular disease reports leg pain while walking. What intervention is most effective for the nurse to recommend?

• A. Recommend elevating the legs above the heart.
• B. Encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually.
• C. Encourage the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods.
• D. Instruct the client to use warm compresses for pain relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to increase walking distance gradually. This intervention is effective because gradual increases in walking distance promote circulation, improve oxygen delivery to tissues, and help reduce leg pain caused by peripheral vascular disease. Elevating the legs above the heart (Choice A) may be beneficial in other conditions like venous insufficiency but not specifically for peripheral vascular disease. Encouraging the client to avoid sitting or standing for long periods (Choice C) can help prevent blood pooling but does not directly address the walking-induced leg pain. Instructing the client to use warm compresses for pain relief (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying circulation issues associated with peripheral vascular disease.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged home. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Limit fluid intake to prevent lung congestion
• B. Avoid all physical activity to conserve energy
• C. Perform pursed-lip breathing during activities
• D. Increase oxygen flow rate if shortness of breath occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pursed-lip breathing helps control breathing and improves oxygen exchange in clients with COPD. It can ease shortness of breath during activities and should be included in discharge teaching to manage symptoms. Option A is incorrect as adequate fluid intake is important for thinning mucus in COPD. Option B is wrong as physical activity, as tolerated, is beneficial for COPD patients. Option D is also incorrect because changing oxygen flow rate without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous.

3. A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Increase the client's fluid intake.
• B. Perform tracheal suctioning.
• C. Administer a mucolytic agent.
• D. Increase the humidity of the oxygen source.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.

4. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Obtain a urine sample from the bedpan.
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Measure the client's oral temperature.
• D. Remove dressing and assess surgical site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.

5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?

• A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
• B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
• C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• D. No further tests are needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.

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