HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with hypertension has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Monitor heart rate regularly
- B. Avoid potassium-rich foods
- C. Increase fluid intake to avoid dehydration
- D. Take the medication with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Calcium channel blockers can cause bradycardia, so it is important for the client to monitor their heart rate regularly. This helps detect any significant changes in heart rate that may require medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to avoid potassium-rich foods with calcium channel blockers. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake is not specifically related to calcium channel blockers. Choice D is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are usually taken with or without food, depending on the specific medication, but not specifically on an empty stomach.
2. A client frequently admitted to the locked psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse's response should be to
- A. Ask not to be assigned to this client or to work on another unit
- B. Tell the client that such behavior is inappropriate
- C. Inform the client that hospital policy prohibits staff from dating clients
- D. Discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic relationship with the client. By doing so, the nurse can reinforce professionalism, establish clear boundaries, and prevent ethical conflicts. Option A is incorrect because avoiding the client or unit does not address the issue at hand and may compromise patient care. Option B, while acknowledging the behavior, does not address the underlying reasons and boundaries. Option C, stating hospital policy, is not as therapeutic or client-centered as discussing the therapeutic relationship directly.
3. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.
4. Prolonged exposure to high concentrations of supplemental oxygen over several days can cause which pathophysiological effect?
- A. Reduced cardiac output
- B. Disrupted surfactant production
- C. Hyperactivity of alveoli
- D. Increased oxygen carrying capacity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prolonged exposure to high oxygen concentrations can disrupt the production of surfactant in the lungs, leading to atelectasis and other lung complications. Surfactant is essential for maintaining lung compliance and preventing alveolar collapse. Reduced cardiac output (Choice A) is not directly associated with prolonged oxygen exposure. Hyperactivity of alveoli (Choice C) is not a recognized consequence of high oxygen levels. Increased oxygen carrying capacity (Choice D) is not a pathophysiological effect of prolonged high oxygen exposure.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?
- A. Administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Provide the client with a carbohydrate snack
- D. Assess the client for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a high blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL, the nurse's initial action should be to administer sliding scale insulin as prescribed. The priority is to bring down the elevated glucose level promptly to prevent further complications. Encouraging the client to drink fluids or providing a carbohydrate snack would not effectively address the elevated blood sugar level in this scenario. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is not appropriate as the client's blood sugar level is high, not low.
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