a client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function which laboratory result is the most important to monitor
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.

2. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and reports nausea. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client on digoxin reports nausea, it can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's digoxin level immediately. This assessment will help determine if the nausea is related to digoxin toxicity, requiring a dosage adjustment. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Assessing the client's apical pulse (Choice C) is important in general digoxin monitoring but not the first action when nausea is reported. Instructing the client to reduce fluid intake (Choice D) is not the initial response to nausea in a client taking digoxin.

4. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit indicates that the infection is not under control despite antibiotic therapy. Fever is a common sign of ongoing infection or inadequate response to treatment. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically indicative of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating infective endocarditis.

5. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.

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