a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider imme
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Quizlet Fundamentals

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

2. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

5. When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.

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