Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which pre-dialysis assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L.
• B. Blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg.
• C. Heart rate of 80 beats per minute.
• D. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported to the healthcare provider before hemodialysis. Hypertension can have a significant impact on the effectiveness and safety of the dialysis treatment. Controlling blood pressure before the procedure is crucial to prevent complications during the dialysis session.

2. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with severe dehydration. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute.
• B. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg.
• C. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
• D. Dry mucous membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A urine output of 20 ml/hour indicates severe dehydration and impaired renal function. This finding suggests a critical state where the kidneys are conserving water, leading to reduced urine output. Immediate intervention is required to restore fluid balance and prevent further complications associated with severe dehydration. Choice A, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, may indicate dehydration but is not as severe as the critically low urine output. Choice B, a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, can be seen in dehydration but is not as concerning as the extremely low urine output. Choice D, dry mucous membranes, is a common sign of dehydration but does not require immediate intervention compared to the severely reduced urine output.

4. A client with osteoporosis is being discharged home. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• B. Take calcium supplements with meals.
• C. Limit vitamin D intake.
• D. Increase intake of caffeine-containing beverages.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking calcium supplements with meals is a crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis. Calcium absorption is enhanced when taken with food, and proper calcium intake is essential for managing osteoporosis effectively by promoting bone health and density. Avoiding weight-bearing exercises (Choice A) is incorrect because these exercises help improve bone strength. Limiting vitamin D intake (Choice C) is also incorrect as vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption. Increasing caffeine intake (Choice D) is not recommended as caffeine can interfere with calcium absorption.

5. A 55-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Imaging shows dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Primary biliary cirrhosis
• B. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Pancreatic cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice in a 55-year-old woman, along with elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels, and imaging findings of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts and a normal common bile duct, are characteristic of primary biliary cirrhosis. Primary biliary cirrhosis is an autoimmune liver disease that typically affects middle-aged women, leading to progressive destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts.

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