Nursing Elites

1. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

• A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
• B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
• C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
• D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

2. A client in labor states, 'I think my water just broke!' The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is on the perineum. What action should the nurse perform first?

• A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• B. Notify the operating room team.
• C. Place the client in Trendelenburg.
• D. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and ensuring continued blood flow to the fetus. Administering oxygen, notifying the operating room team, or administering a fluid bolus are not the initial priority actions in a cord prolapse situation.

3. The nurse is administering sevelamer (RenaGel) during lunch to a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The client asks the nurse to bring the medication later. The nurse should describe which action of RenaGel as an explanation for taking it with meals?

• A. Prevents indigestion associated with the ingestion of spicy foods.
• B. Binds with phosphorus in foods and prevents absorption.
• C. Promotes stomach emptying and prevents gastric reflux.
• D. Buffers hydrochloric acid and prevents gastric erosion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer (RenaGel) binds with phosphorus in foods to prevent its absorption, which is why it should be taken with meals. By taking RenaGel with meals, it can effectively bind with phosphorus from food, reducing the amount of phosphorus absorbed by the body, thus helping to manage hyperphosphatemia in clients with ESRD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because RenaGel's primary action is to bind with phosphorus in foods, not related to preventing indigestion, promoting stomach emptying, or buffering hydrochloric acid.

4. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

5. When covering another nurse's assignment during a lunch break, based on the status report provided, which client should the charge nurse check first?

• A. The client admitted yesterday with diabetic ketoacidosis whose blood glucose level is now 195 mg/dl.
• B. The client with an ileal conduit created two days ago with a scant amount of blood in the drainage pouch.
• C. The client post-triple coronary bypass four days ago who has serosanguinous drainage in the chest tube.
• D. The client with a pneumothorax secondary to a gunshot wound with a current pulse oximeter reading of 90%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with a pneumothorax and a pulse oximeter reading of 90% indicates potential respiratory compromise, requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration.

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