an elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check up the client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen an elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check up the client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen
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1. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

2. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the affected leg while in bed. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, aiding in the management of DVT. Positioning the affected leg below the heart can worsen the condition by increasing the risk of clot dislodgment. Massaging the affected extremity can also dislodge the clot and should be avoided. Cold compresses are not recommended as they can cause vasoconstriction, potentially worsening the condition.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduces ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because lactulose does not have the therapeutic effect of increasing blood pressure, preventing esophageal bleeding, or decreasing heart rate.

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