Nursing Elites

1. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

• A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
• B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
• C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
• D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

2. An elderly client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted to the hospital. Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Elevated serum sodium level.
• B. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level.
• C. Increased serum creatinine level.
• D. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with congestive heart failure (CHF), impaired cardiac function can lead to decreased renal perfusion, resulting in elevated serum creatinine levels. Therefore, an increased serum creatinine level is a common laboratory finding in CHF clients, indicating possible renal impairment.

3. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed a fentanyl patch. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
• B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
• C. Avoid using additional heating pads over the patch.
• D. Remove the patch before showering.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to a patient prescribed a fentanyl patch is to change the patch every 72 hours. This ensures consistent pain control and prevents complications. It is crucial to rotate the application sites to prevent skin irritation or reactions. Using additional heating pads over the patch should be avoided as it can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to overdose or adverse effects. Removing the patch before showering is not necessary as long as the patch is securely in place.

4. A client who is receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Apply pressure to the injection site.
• D. Administer protamine sulfate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding. The appropriate action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. Increasing the heparin infusion rate can further elevate the aPTT, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Applying pressure to the injection site is not relevant in this situation. Administering protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin in cases of overdose or bleeding, but it is not the initial action for an elevated aPTT.

5. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

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