ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
- B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L in a client with AKI can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a serious complication in AKI as impaired kidney function can result in the accumulation of potassium in the blood, posing a risk of cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment to lower potassium levels is crucial to prevent cardiac complications in this situation.
2. The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube and is receiving enteral feedings. What intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the NG tube?
- A. Flush the NG tube with water before and after feedings.
- B. Check gastric residual volume every 6 hours.
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees.
- D. Replace the NG tube every 24 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees is crucial in preventing aspiration, a common complication associated with nasogastric (NG) tubes and enteral feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, promoting client safety and preventing respiratory complications. Flushing the NG tube with water before and after feedings (Choice A) is not the primary intervention to prevent complications. Checking gastric residual volume every 6 hours (Choice B) is important but not directly related to preventing complications associated with the NG tube. Replacing the NG tube every 24 hours (Choice D) is not a standard practice and is not necessary to prevent complications if the tube is functioning properly.
3. The patient described in the preceding questions has a positive H. pylori antibody blood test. She is compliant with the medical regimen you prescribe. Although her symptoms initially respond, she returns to see you six months later with the same symptoms. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. She is at high risk for reinfection with H. pylori.
- B. A positive serum IgG indicates that eradication of H. pylori was unsuccessful.
- C. The urease breath test is an ideal test to document failure of eradication.
- D. Dyspepsia usually improves with H. pylori eradication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reinfection with H. pylori is rare, and the persistence of infection usually indicates poor compliance with the medical regimen or antibiotic resistance. A positive serum IgG may persist indefinitely and cannot alone determine the failure of eradication. However, a decrease in quantitative IgG levels has been used to confirm treatment success. The urease breath test is recommended to assess the failure of eradication as it can detect the presence of H. pylori in the stomach, indicating treatment failure if positive.
4. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen post-CVA, continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy may exacerbate abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel sounds. This situation requires immediate assessment and reevaluation before continuing with the prescription.
5. A 48-year-old woman presents with fatigue, pruritus, and jaundice. She has a history of ulcerative colitis. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Hepatitis B
- B. Primary biliary cirrhosis
- C. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
- D. Autoimmune hepatitis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of symptoms (fatigue, pruritus, jaundice) along with a history of ulcerative colitis and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels suggests primary sclerosing cholangitis. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, such as ulcerative colitis. It is characterized by inflammation and fibrosis of the bile ducts, leading to cholestasis and elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access