ATI LPN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2019 Quizlet
1. The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
- B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L in a client with AKI can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia is a serious complication in AKI as impaired kidney function can result in the accumulation of potassium in the blood, posing a risk of cardiac arrest. Prompt treatment to lower potassium levels is crucial to prevent cardiac complications in this situation.
2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Nausea and vomiting are common signs of digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious complications like dysrhythmias. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent further harm to the client. Choice A, a heart rate of 58 beats per minute, although slightly lower than normal, may be appropriate for a client on digoxin. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is within normal limits and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice D, shortness of breath, is a common symptom in heart failure and requires monitoring but is not as indicative of digoxin toxicity as nausea and vomiting.
3. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
- A. Upper endoscopy
- B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
- C. Barium swallow
- D. Esophageal manometry
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.
4. What is the primary action of digoxin when prescribed to a patient with heart failure?
- A. Increase heart rate
- B. Decrease cardiac output
- C. Strengthen cardiac contractions
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin, when prescribed to a patient with heart failure, primarily acts by strengthening cardiac contractions. This leads to an improvement in cardiac output, making it an essential medication in managing heart failure. By enhancing the force of contractions, digoxin helps the heart pump more effectively and efficiently, leading to better circulation and symptom control in patients with compromised cardiac function.
5. What nursing intervention can help alleviate pruritus in a client with cirrhosis?
- A. Administering antihistamines
- B. Providing a high-protein diet
- C. Applying emollients to the skin
- D. Encouraging frequent baths with hot water
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying emollients to the skin can help alleviate pruritus in clients with cirrhosis. Emollients help soothe and moisturize the skin, reducing the discomfort associated with itching.
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