a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran pradaxa which instruction should the nurse include in the clients teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed dabigatran (Pradaxa). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the client's teaching regarding dabigatran (Pradaxa) is to take the medication at the same time each day. This ensures a consistent blood level and effectiveness of the medication, which is crucial in managing atrial fibrillation and preventing complications. It helps maintain a steady therapeutic effect and reduces the risk of erratic drug levels in the body.

2. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

3. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being treated with lactulose. What is an expected outcome of this treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels through promoting its excretion via the intestines. Elevated ammonia levels contribute to the development of encephalopathy symptoms, so by lowering them, the client's neurological status can improve.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the diet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of a low-protein diet in clients with chronic kidney disease. BUN levels reflect the breakdown of protein in the body, and a low-protein diet aims to reduce BUN levels to lessen the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, monitoring BUN levels is crucial in managing kidney function and evaluating the impact of dietary modifications. Serum potassium, serum calcium, and creatinine clearance are important parameters to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease, but they are not specifically indicative of the effectiveness of a low-protein diet. Serum potassium levels are crucial in assessing electrolyte balance, serum calcium levels are important for bone health and nerve function, and creatinine clearance reflects kidney function overall, not just the impact of a low-protein diet.

5. When assessing a client with a chest tube connected to suction, which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Steady bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation that indicates the chest tube is functioning properly. This steady bubbling signifies that the suction is actively maintaining the desired pressure level within the system, ensuring proper drainage and lung re-expansion. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber, or no fluctuation in the water seal chamber are not indicative of optimal chest tube function and may require further assessment or intervention.

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