Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest
• B. Use of accessory muscles
• C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.

2. When obtaining a rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, which action is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Hold the thermometer in place.
• B. Place the disposable pad under the buttocks.
• C. Instruct the client to breathe deeply.
• D. Return the probe to the charger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When obtaining a rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, holding the thermometer in place is crucial. This action ensures accurate temperature measurement and prevents injury to the client. Option B, placing a disposable pad under the buttocks, is not the most important action; it may enhance comfort but does not impact the accuracy of the temperature reading. Option C, instructing the client to breathe deeply, is irrelevant to obtaining a rectal temperature. Option D, returning the probe to the charger, is an incorrect action after temperature measurement.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

4. In caring for a client receiving the aminoglycoside antibiotic gentamicin, what diagnostic test should the nurse prioritize monitoring?

• A. Urinalysis
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum osmolarity
• D. Liver enzymes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, are known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial in assessing renal function and detecting any potential kidney problems early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because urinalysis primarily assesses urine composition, serum osmolarity measures the concentration of solutes in the blood, and liver enzymes are not directly impacted by aminoglycoside antibiotics like gentamicin.

5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Blindness due to cataracts
• B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
• C. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• D. Heart block due to myocardial damage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Stroke secondary to hemorrhage.' Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to the weakening of blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of a stroke due to hemorrhage. This can result in serious neurological deficits or even death. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while hypertension can have various complications including vision changes, kidney damage, and heart problems, the most immediate and severe risk associated with uncontrolled hypertension is a stroke from cerebral hemorrhage.

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