a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted with an exacerbation which assessment finding requires immediate int a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is admitted with an exacerbation which assessment finding requires immediate int
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates poor oxygenation and poses a risk of tissue hypoxia, making it a critical finding that needs prompt attention. Barrel-shaped chest and inspiratory crackles are commonly seen in clients with COPD and do not necessitate immediate intervention. The use of accessory muscles may indicate increased work of breathing but does not pose the same level of immediate threat as severe hypoxemia.

2. The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Vincristine is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, resulting in numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Diarrhea, hair loss, and chest pain are not typically associated with vincristine use.

3. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin to a 4-year-old child with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the child’s heart rate is 70 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric patients, digoxin administration is guided by the heart rate. If the child's heart rate is below the established threshold, which is typically 90-100 beats per minute in a 4-year-old, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be notified for further evaluation and instructions. Choice A is incorrect because administering the medication when the heart rate is low can lead to adverse effects. Rechecking the heart rate in 30 minutes (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention if the heart rate remains low. Administering half of the prescribed dose (Choice D) is not recommended without healthcare provider guidance.

5. A parent of a 2-month-old infant, who was treated for pyloric stenosis, is receiving discharge instructions from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing infants on their stomach after feeding increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). It is important to educate parents to always place infants on their back to sleep to reduce this risk.

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