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HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

    A. Serum potassium

    B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

    C. Serum creatinine

    D. Serum glucose

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in assessing kidney function because contrast agents can potentially worsen renal function, leading to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in identifying patients at risk and taking necessary precautions. Serum potassium (Choice A) is important in conditions like hyperkalemia but is not the priority before a contrast CT scan. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice B) is another renal function test but is not as specific as serum creatinine for assessing kidney function. Serum glucose (Choice D) is important in monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients, but it is not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this scenario.

In a client with heart failure receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix), which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

  • A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
  • B. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
  • C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
  • D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and concerning in a client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications. The other options, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, blood glucose of 200 mg/dl, and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl, are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks to the client in this scenario.

A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

  • A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
  • B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
  • C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
  • D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

A client with chronic liver disease is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

  • A. Enlarged spleen
  • B. Increased abdominal girth
  • C. Yellowing of the skin
  • D. Confusion and altered mental status

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning in a client with chronic liver disease, as they may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Enlarged spleen (choice A) can be a common finding in liver disease due to portal hypertension but may not be as acute as hepatic encephalopathy. Increased abdominal girth (choice B) is typically seen in ascites, which is already present in this client. Yellowing of the skin (choice C) is a manifestation of jaundice, also a known symptom in liver disease but not as acute as confusion and altered mental status.

A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

  • A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
  • B. Bradycardia
  • C. Muscle weakness
  • D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are the most concerning finding in a client with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Peaked T waves are a classic ECG finding associated with hyperkalemia and indicate the need for immediate intervention. Bradycardia, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes can also be seen in hyperkalemia, but the presence of peaked T waves signifies a higher risk of cardiac events, making it the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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