HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in assessing kidney function because contrast agents can potentially worsen renal function, leading to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in identifying patients at risk and taking necessary precautions. Serum potassium (Choice A) is important in conditions like hyperkalemia but is not the priority before a contrast CT scan. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice B) is another renal function test but is not as specific as serum creatinine for assessing kidney function. Serum glucose (Choice D) is important in monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients, but it is not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this scenario.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (398 μmol/L SI)
- B. Temperature of 101.3°F
- C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- D. Heart rate of 88 bpm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 4.5 mg/dL indicates severe renal impairment, which requires immediate attention before administering ciprofloxacin. Elevated serum creatinine levels suggest decreased kidney function, and giving ciprofloxacin can further harm the kidneys. Monitoring and addressing renal function are crucial to prevent worsening of renal impairment and potential drug toxicity. The temperature, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but in this scenario, the priority is to address the severe renal impairment before proceeding with ciprofloxacin administration.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
- D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.
4. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with jaundice and ascites, which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
- B. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
- C. Serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with cirrhosis as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, requiring immediate intervention. Elevated ammonia levels are associated with impaired liver function and can lead to mental status changes. Serum bilirubin (Choice A) is elevated in cirrhosis but not as concerning for acute intervention as high ammonia levels. Serum albumin (Choice B) and serum sodium (Choice D) levels are important in cirrhotic patients but are not as directly associated with hepatic encephalopathy as ammonia levels.
5. An adult male with schizophrenia who has been noncompliant in taking oral antipsychotic medications refuses a prescribed IM medication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal
- B. Attempt to convince the client to take the medication
- C. Administer the medication without the client's consent
- D. Document the refusal and take no further action
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's refusal. It is important for the healthcare provider to be informed so that they can decide on the next steps in the client's treatment, which may involve exploring alternative options or strategies. Attempting to convince the client to take the medication may not be effective, especially if the client is refusing. Administering the medication without the client's consent would violate the client's autonomy and rights. Simply documenting the refusal without further action may not address the client's treatment needs.
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