Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of audible wheezing.
• D. Improved exercise tolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Oliguria.
• B. Kussmaul respirations.
• C. Fruity odor on the breath.
• D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.

3. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

4. The client is 5 feet from the bathroom door when he states, 'I feel faint.' Before the nurse can get the client to a chair, the client starts to fall. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Check the client's carotid pulse.
• B. Encourage the client to get to the toilet.
• C. In a loud voice, call for help.
• D. Gently lower the client to the floor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to gently lower the client to the floor. This action helps prevent injury to both the client and the nurse. It is important to ensure a safe environment and protect the client from falling, as well as to maintain the nurse's own safety while providing care.

5. The healthcare professional is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. What action should the healthcare professional take next?

• A. Document that the client responds to a painful stimulus.
• B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
• D. Report decorticate posturing to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's response to a painful stimulus indicates a purposeful reaction, which should be accurately documented as per the assessment findings. This documentation is essential for ongoing monitoring and communication of the client's condition to the healthcare team.

Similar Questions