a client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse why is so much of my hair falling out each day which response by the nurse best explains the rea
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

2. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

3. After the administration of t-PA, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After the administration of t-PA, the nurse should observe the client for chest pain. Chest pain post t-PA administration could indicate reocclusion of the coronary artery, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring for fever (choice B) is not specifically associated with t-PA administration. While reviewing the 12-lead ECG (choice C) is important for assessing cardiac function, it may not be the immediate priority right after t-PA administration. Auscultating breath sounds (choice D) is important for assessing respiratory status but is not the most crucial assessment following t-PA administration.

4. An older client with long-term type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is seen in the clinic for a routine health assessment. Which assessment would the nurse complete to determine if a patient with type 2 diabetes Mellitus (DM) is experiencing long-term complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing sensation in the feet and legs is crucial for detecting diabetic neuropathy, a common long-term complication of diabetes. While signs of respiratory tract infection, skin condition of lower extremities, and serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen levels are important assessments in diabetic care, they are not specific for detecting long-term complications like neuropathy.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

Similar Questions

Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A nurse checks the residual volume from a client’s nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 mL of gastric contents. What should the nurse do before administering the prescribed 100 mL of formula to the client?
A client recovering from surgery has a large abdominal wound. Which of the following foods, high in vitamin C, should the nurse encourage the client to eat to promote wound healing?
A client is being taught about self-catheterization in the home setting. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? (Select all that apply.)
When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following?

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