Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

• A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
• B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
• C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
• D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

2. A client's urinalysis results show a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• B. Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet.
• C. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic.
• D. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the client has a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L, indicating dehydration, is to encourage the client to drink more fluids. Dehydration can lead to elevated urine osmolality, and increasing fluid intake can help rehydrate the client. A low-sodium diet is not the priority in this scenario as it would not directly address the dehydration indicated by the high urine osmolality. Administering an intravenous diuretic would further concentrate the urine, exacerbating the dehydration. Obtaining a suction device and implementing seizure precautions are not indicated based on the client's urine osmolality results and would not address the underlying issue of dehydration.

3. A client has lost a significant amount of blood due to complications during surgery. What parameter does the nurse recognize as the earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume?

• A. Pulse rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure
• D. Pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume is often recognized by an increase in pulse rate. Cardiac output is influenced by circulating blood volume, heart pumping action, and vascular tone. As fluid volume decreases, the body compensates by increasing the pulse rate. The formula for cardiac output is pulse rate multiplied by stroke volume. An elevated pulse rate helps maintain blood pressure with minor volume depletion. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure and pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure, obtained through a pulmonary artery catheter, provide insights into pulmonary artery and left ventricle pressures at the end of diastole. These parameters are not the earliest indicators of new decreases in fluid volume compared to pulse rate.

4. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

5. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

• A. Seafood
• B. Penicillin
• C. Bee stings
• D. Red food dye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

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